Certification Software

Question: 1

Which three statements are true about Instructor Led Training Events/Tracks/Sessions?

A. They can also help to organize VILT and Online Classes and Courses.

B. They let administrators add an entire structure of ILT training to a Job Profile.

C. They help clients to organize Instructor-Led Training based on two levels of client criteria.

D. They permit users to select from multiple session dates when an Event or Track is added to a Learning Plan.

E. They make it easier for administrators to find specific training in the Instructor Led Training menu in the Control Panel.

Answer: A,B,D

Question: 2

The security policy for password complexity is for users to use passwords that conform to the rule: passwords must contain one uppercase letter, at least two numbers, and one nonalphanumeric symbol.

Which type of password rule must you configure?

A. sequence rule

B. occurrence rule

C. manual rule

D. advanced rule

Answer: D

Question: 3

You are the system administrator of your LearnCenter and are getting responses from supervisors that they are only able to assign users to existing enrollments and are unable to set up their own enrollments.

You have checked all of the supervisor account permissions and all permissions for Manage Enrollments are selected.

Which two statements are true about this issue?

A. The supervisor account permissions do not include permissions to create enrollments.

B. The supervisors must be mapped to a specific group to be able to access additional permissions.

C. Supervisors must be mapped to a separate user role for additional permissions.

D. Supervisors require system administrator permissions to be able to create enrollments.

Answer: B,D

Question: 4

You are importing a new SCORM 1.2 course and select Embedded in the page.

Identify two results that occur when the import is complete.

A. The Course will not have a link in the course player to click on to start it within a new pop-up window.

B. The Course can be embedded in a LearnCenter course to run within the LearnCenter course player.

C. The Course is embedded in the LearnCenter course player and runs within the player.

D. The Course can be embedded in a LearnCenter page for the user to access and complete it.

Answer: A,D

Question: 5

An organization wants to group all their new hires so they can push out a new-hire learning plan. What would the Dynamic Criteria settings look like when configuring the Dynamic Group?

A. Item Type = Users; Field Name = New Hire; Operator = Equal To; Value = Yes

B. Item Type = Users; Field Name = New Hire; Operator = Less Than; Value = 90 days

C. Item Type = Job Profiles; Field Name = Job Profile Name; Operator = Equal To; Value = New Hire

D. Item Type = Learning Plans; Field Name = Learning Plan Name; Operator = Equal To; Value = New Hire Plan

Answer: C

Question: 6

What feature is used to display additional information, about a question or answer, after the user has made an answer choice?

A. General feedback

B. Question feedback

C. Answer feedback

D. Answer categories

Answer: D

Question: 7

A client wants to create individual user accounts where users must set a new password the first time they access the LearnCenter and every three months after that.

Which two options must set to achieve the client’s desired result, in addition to the required fields of Username, Email, Password, and Confirm Password?

A. Force User to Change Password on First Login

B. Future Expiration Set to Every 90 Days

C. Use a System Generated Password

D. Insert Existing User from Another LearnCenter

Answer: A,B

Question: 8

You have configured a user role for HR reporting administrators and mapped users to this role using an HR Reporting Admin group.

An HR reporting administrator user logs in to the system and notices that he/she is unable to access the Control Panel to create or run reports and asks you to investigate the issue.

While performing a quick check, you are able to confirm that the user has been assigned to the correct groups, but the permissions are missing.

Identify three reasons why this happened.

A. The users were not mapped to thegroup when they were first assigned to the role, and you need to update the mapped users for this role.

B. The HR Reporting Administrator role has been set to inactive.

C. The user account has been set to inactive.

D. The HR Reporting Administrator role does not have the permissions to manage reports.

Answer: A,B,D

Question: 9

You have uploaded course files to the SFTP (Secure File Transfer Protocol) site and are now trying to import the new SCORM 1.2 course into your LearnCenter. However, you are receiving error messages that the file could not be found.

What are three reasons for this issue?

A. You have selected a different file name during the import other than theimsmanifest.xmlfile.

B. The new course is missing theimsmanifest.xmlfilewithin the folder structure.

C. The course files were loaded to the AICC folder of the SFTP site instead of the SCORM folder.

D. The folder with the course files on the SFTP is written in capital letters but your path in the import is in lowercase.

E. Youdid not include the “files/” at the beginning of your file path to the course files.

Answer: A,C,E

Question: 10

There are six departments in the organization and each department has an administrator responsible for managing the department’s Web-Based Training. Web-Based Training titles are similar and the administrators need a way to filter in the Control Panel and find the Web-Based Training for their department.

What must you do to meet this requirement?

A. Create a Category for each department, map the department’s training for the corresponding Category, and use the Category as a filter.

B. Create a Training Offering for each department, map the department’s training to the corresponding Training Offering, and use the Training Offering as filter.

C. Create an Assignment for each department, map the department’s training to the corresponding Assignment, and use the Assignment as a filter.

D. Create a Learning Plan for each department, map the department’s training for the corresponding Learning Plan, and use the Learning Plan as a filter.

Answer: A

Question: 1

You are the system administrator at your organization.

You need to quickly synchronize all customizations from your synchronizing the data.

What should you perform to accomplish this goal?

A. a clone

B. a switch

C. a full copy

D. a minimal copy

Answer: D

Question: 2

You are a system administrator at Contoso. Inc.

You need to ensure that only system administrators and system customizers

What is likely the cause of this issue?

A. Your instance is being upgraded.

B. Your storage limit was reached.

C. Your instance is in Administration mode.

D. Your instance has been reset

Answer: A

Question: 3

You are a system administrator using Microsoft Dynamics 365.

You received an email informing you that you need to schedule the December 2016 update: however, you skipped the June 2016 update.

Which of the following is true?

A. You can schedule the December 2016 update without scheduling the June 2016 update.

B. You can skip both updates and schedule all to be completed when the June 2017 update is available.

C. You must schedule the June 2016 update before you can schedule the December 2016 update.

D. You can schedule both updates to be completed at the same time.

Answer: A

Question: 4

You are the system administrator for an organization that has a Microsoft Dynamics 365 deployment hosted in country/region 1.

Your organization just acquired a new company in country/region 2.

You need to ensure that the instance created for the users of the acquired company does not share storage space with all of your current instances.

What should you create to accomplish this goal?

A. a new production instance in country/region 1 on your existing tenant

B. a new production instance in a new tenant in country/region 2

C. a new sandbox instance in country/region 2 on your existing tenant

D. a new production instance in country/region 2 on your existing tenant

Answer: D

Question: 5

You are the system administrator at Contoso, Inc.

You have imported 3 GB of data into an instance, but the storage utilization for your subscription does not reflect the used storage space.

What is causing this discrepancy?

A. You imported the data into a sandbox instance.

B. Custom indexing is enabled on your instance.

C. You imported the data into a preview instance.

D. Data utilization is calculated every 48 hours.

Answer: A

Question: 6

You are a system administrator using Microsoft Dynamics 365.

You have two production instances and four sandbox instances. A new update is coming out What is true about the updates?

A. Updates for the production and the sandbox instances are each managed separately.

B. Updates for the sandbox instances are managed separately. The production instances are managed together.

C. Updates for the production and the sandbox instances are all managed together.

D. Updates for the sandbox instances are managed together.

E. The production instances are managed separately.

Answer: BC

Question: 7

You are a system administrator using Microsoft Dynamics 365.

You receive notification that an update needs to be scheduled and approved.

Where should you perform this task?

A. In Microsoft Dynamics 365, select Settings and System Notifications.

B. In the Microsoft Office 365 Admin Center, open the Microsoft Dynamics 365 Admin Center.

C. In Microsoft Dynamics 365. select Settings and Administration.

D. In the Microsoft Office 365 Admin Center, select Billing and Subscriptions.

Answer: B

Question: 8

You are the system administrator at your organization.

You need to synchronize all customization and users from your production instance to your training instance.

What should you perform to accomplish this goal?

A. a full copy

B. a clone

C. a switch

D. a minimal copy

Answer: A

Question: 9

You are a system administrator.

You are working with a Microsoft Dynamics 365 update process to include new features from a major release in your organization.

How often do new features become available through customer-driven updates in the Microsoft Dynamics 365 instance?

A. monthly

B. quarterly

C. twice per year

D. annually

Answer: C

Explanation:

https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn308237.aspx

Question: 10

You are a system administrator at Contoso, Inc.

You need to ensure that only system administrators and system customizers have access to your development instance. What should you do?

A. Switch the instance to managed.

B. Place the instance in Administration mode.

C. Use Security Groups to control access to the preview instance.

D. Set the instance to Preview mode.

Answer: C

Question: 1

Which dual radio access point models support concurrent operations in the 2.4Ghz band as well as the 5Ghz band? (Choose three)

A. AP-92

B. AP-93

C. AP-105

D. AP-224

E. AP-135

Answer: C,D,E

Question: 2

Which of the following APs do NOT support dual radio operations?

(Choose two)

A. AP 93

B. AP 105

C. RAP 3WN

D. AP 224

E. AP 135

Answer: A,C

Question: 3

An AP135 has been configured with 3 SSIDs supported on both 2.4Ghz and 5Ghz bands. How many GRE tunnels will be created between the AP 135 and the controller?

A. 3

B. 4

C. 6

D. 7

E. 8

Answer: D

Question: 4

Centralized licensing is not in use on an Aruba based network which has a Master and three local controllers. No APs terminate on the Master controller. Roles and Firewall policies need to be created and applied, hence PEF-NG license is required.

On which controller should the license be installed?

A. Only the master controller since role and firewall policies are created here.

B. only the local controllers since firewall policies are applied here

C. the master and all three local controllers

D. this isn't the correct license for this purpose, use PEF-VPN license

E. this is not needed because PEF-NG is part of base OS

Answer: C

Question: 5

What information do you need to generate a feature license key for an Aruba controller?

A. The controller's MAC address and the feature description.

B. controller's MAC address and the certificate number

C. controller's Serial Number and the feature description

D. controller's Serial Number and the certificate number

E. controller's MAC address and Serial Number

Answer: D

Question: 6

What are the PEF-NG license limits based on?

A. Number of APs

B. One license per controller

C. Number of users

D. Number of local controllers

E. Master Controller total user count

Answer: A

Question: 7

Which of the following licenses are consumed by Mesh APs advertising an SSIDs?

A. AP license

B. Mesh license

C. PEF-V license

D. No license is required

E. RAP License

Answer: A

Question: 8

The permanent licenses on the controller will be deleted with the use of which command?

A. delete license

B. write erase

C. Licenses cannot be deleted once activated

D. write erase all

E. reboot delete all

Answer: D

Question: 9

A network administrator wants to terminate VPN sessions on a local controller in the DMZ. Which statement is true about the PEF-VPN license?

A. It is only applied to the master controller

B. It is only applied to the DMZ controller.

C. It is based on the number of APs

D. One license is needed on the master and the DMZ local

E. It is distributed by the license server as needed

Answer: D

Question: 10

What is the best practice regarding licensing for a backup master to support Master Redundancy in a network without centralized licensing?

A. Backup master only requires the AP license

B. Supported limits and installed licenses should be the same on primary master and backup Master

C. Licenses are pushed from the primary to the backup Master along with the configuration

D. The Backup Master does not require licenses to support master redundancy

E. On the backup only one license of each type is needed.

Answer: B

Question: 11

Which of the following licenses can be included in the licensing pool for centralized licensing? (Choose three)

A. Factory default licenses

B. Master Controller licenses

C. Evaluation licenses

D. Local Controller licenses

E. PEFV license

Answer: B,C,D

Question: 12

By default Centralized licensing messages between master and local controllers are sent ___________________.

A. In the clear unencrypted since the master and local controllers already share IPSEC tunnels.

B. Using CPSec

C. Using IPSec site to site VPN tunnels

D. Encrypted using GRE

E. PAPI

Answer: A

Question: 13

Which of the following will occur if a master license server fails with no standby server present? (Choose two)

A. Local controllers licenses will continue to be valid for 30 days

B. Local controllers will immediately remove all installed licenses

C. No licenses will be sent to any new controllers that come online

D. All licenses go back into the pool for redistribution

E. A Local Controller elects itself master license server

Answer: A,C

Question: 14

A evaluation License is valid for a maximum of ________?

A. 30 Days

B. 60 Days

C. 90 Days

D. 6 Months

E. 12 Months

Answer: C

Question: 15

The following licenses have been installed on these controllers:

Master-1: 8 AP licenses

Local-2 : 8 AP licenses

Local-3 : 5 Evaluation AP Licenses

Local-4 : 10 Factory installed AP licenses

Central Licensing is enabled. What is the AP Pool capacity on the Central License Server?

A. 8

B. 16

C. 21

D. 26

E. 31

Answer: C

Question: 16

Centralized licensing is not enabled in a network of 1 Master and 2 Local controllers, what should be the license count on all controllers to terminate 8 APs on each Local controller and support Local redundancy?

A. 16 AP license on all controllers

B. 8 AP license on Master and 16 AP license on both locals

C. 8 AP license on all controllers

D. 1 AP license on Master and 16 AP license on both locals

E. 16 AP licenses on the Locals

Answer: D

Question: 17

Which may be applied directly to an VLAN interface? (Choose three)

A. Access List (ACL)

B. Firewall Policy

C. Roles

D. AAA profiles

E. RF Plan Map

Answer: A,B,D

Question: 18

When creating a firewall rule on an Aruba controller, which parameter is optional?

A. Destination

B. Service

C. Source

D. Log

E. Action

Answer: D

Question: 19

What are valid methods of blacklisting a device? (Choose three)

A. Manually

B. Firewall Rule

C. Firewall Policy

D. Authentication Failures

E. Data Rate Thresholds

Answer: A,B,D

Question: 20

What is the blacklist default time?

A. 30 seconds

B. 1800 seconds

C. 3600 seconds

D. No default time, it must be done manually

E. 1 day

Answer: C

Question: 1

Which EMC NetWorker software component is responsible for storing metadata in the form of hash IDs for a deduplication backup?

A. Storage node

B. NetWorker client

C. Deduplication node

D. NetWorker server

Answer: A

Question: 2

Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.

In an EMC NetWorker environment, the customer is backing up 7.5 TB per day. The 7.5 TB is comprised of 750 million files. According to EMC best practices, approximately how large will the Client File Index (CFI) be?

A. 167 GB

B. 70 GB

C. 209 GB

D. 307 GB

Answer: A

Question: 3

Click the Calculator icon in the upper left-hand corner.

In an EMC NetWorker environment, the customer is backing up 500 GB per day. The 500 GB is comprised of 35,000 very large files. According to EMC best practices, approximately how large will the Client File Index (CFI) be?

A. 6 MB

B. 4 MB

C. 8 MB

D. 10 MB

Answer: C

Question: 4

When adding an EMC NetWorker server's name into the /nsr/res/servers file of a client, which service must be restarted on the client for the change to take effect?

A. nsrexecd

B. nsrd

C. nsrindexd

D. nsrdb

Answer: A

Question: 5

A customer has just upgraded their EMC NetWorker server. The upgrade included a new IP address and hostname.

After updating the configuration file on the client, which service should be restarted in order for the change to be recognized?

A. nsrdb

B. nsrexecd

C. nsrd

D. nsrindexd

Answer: B

Question: 6

What is the recommended media type for the device that stores the metadata in the form of hash IDs for EMC NetWorker deduplication backups?

A. adv_file

B. file

C. Tape

D. Atmos COS

Answer: A

Question: 7

A customer using EMC NetWorker Power edition attempts to set server parallelism to 96. When saving the changes they notice that the server parallelism reverts back to 64.

What action needs to be taken to set server parallelism to 96?

A. Add NetWorker Storage Node Enabler Code.

B. Set device max sessions to 96.

C. Configure group parallelism to 96.

D. Enable diagnostic mode.

Answer: A

Question: 8

Refer to the exhibit.

In an EMC NetWorker environment, the storage node sn1 is down for maintenance. According to the client properties, what happens when the backup of the client starts?

A. The backup will fail as the storage node sn1 is not available.

B. The backup data will be sent to any available storage node.

C. The backup data will be sent to the NetWorker server.

D. The backup data will be sent to the storage node sn2.

Answer: D

Question: 9

You have an EMC NetWorker server with one storage node. There is an autoloader with four tape drives. Two drives each are dedicated to the server and storage node. A new Celerra has been added to the network with 500 GB of dat

a. What must be done to back up the data on the Celerra?

A. Configure a client for the Celerra to use DSA and back up its data to either the NetWorker server or storage node.

B. Create a storage node on the Celerra and select NDMP in the "type of storage node" field.

C. Configure a device on the NetWorker server as an NDMP device and back up the Celerra to this device.

D. Create an NDMP backup pool and add this pool to a save group with other clients.

Answer: A

Question: 10

Refer to the exhibit.

An EMC NetWorker customer has two data zones, A and B, with autochanger AC1 and AC2, respectively, with four drives each. AC1 is configured as a dedicated autochanger and AC2 is configured as a shared autochanger. Two drives of AC2 are statically assigned. How many drives of AC2 can be shared in Zone A?

A. 2

B. 4

C. 0

D. 6

Answer: C

Question: 11

Which directory holds the tracking information of each file backed up by the client "tuba" on EMC NetWorker server "soprano"?

A. /nsr/index/tuba/db6

B. /nsr/tuba/db6

C. /nsr/index/soprano/db6

D. /nsr/soprano/db6

Answer: A

Question: 12

What is a characteristic of how the EMC NetWorker modules integrate with native applications?

A. The NetWorker module acts as an intermediate layer between NetWorker and the native application.

B. The developer of the native application provides a NetWorker module to allow for protection of their application with NetWorker.

C. The NetWorker module runs on the NetWorker server and acts as an intermediary for data coming from the NetWorker client module.

D. The NetWorker module always takes the place of the standard NetWorker client allowing for backup of applications and file systems.

Answer: A

Question: 13

Which Microsoft VSS component gathers information to properly save applications, services, or files in a filesystem?

A. Provider

B. Requestor

C. Writer

D. Interceptor

Answer: B

Question: 14

Which Microsoft VSS component is responsible for creation and maintenance of a shadow copy?

A. Provider

B. Requestor

C. Writer

D. Interceptor

Answer: A

Question: 15

You have successfully configured three SQL servers for backup with the EMC NetWorker Module for SQL. These servers are configured as follows:

Save set: MSSQL:

All three clients are in the same group

Data for this group is sent to the SQL_Bkup pool

Scheduled backup of the group shows that all SQL data from the three servers was successfully backed up. However, when you attempt to recover the SQL data using the standard NetWorker user GUI, you only see file system data to recover.

What must you do to recover the SQL data backed up with the NetWorker module?

A. Launch the NetWorker User for SQL.

B. Modify the browse time within the NetWorker user GUI to show the period for which you want to recover.

C. Use the Microsoft SQL Server native tools to recover the data from NetWorker.

D. Modify the save set to include an instance or database name after MSSQL:.

Answer: A

Question: 16

A customer has an Oracle 11g database running on a RAC cluster with ASM. It occupies approximately 5 TB on a Symmetrix DMX. They have an RTO of four hours. They intend to implement PowerSnap with EMC NetWorker version 7.6 to back up the BCVs using RMAN scripts and a proxy host.

What prevents this implementation from being successful?

A. PowerSnap is not supported on Oracle 11g with EMC NetWorker 7.6.

B. BCVs cannot be mounted to a proxy host with a RAC cluster.

C. RTO of four hours cannot be accomplished.

D. ASM does not support proxy hosts.

Answer: D

Question: 17

When creating an EMC NetWorker application-based snapshot, in what order are the steps performed?

A. 1. Freeze application2. Flush buffers3. Take snapshot4. Thaw application

B. 1. Flush buffers2. Freeze application3. Take snapshot4. Thaw application

C. 1. Freeze application2. Take snapshot3. Commit writes4. Thaw application

D. 1. Commit writes2. Freezeapplication3. Take snapshot4. Thaw application

Answer: A

Question: 18

What is the backup command specified in the EMC NetWorker client resource for EMC Centera backups?

A. nsrndmp_save

B. savepnpc

C. nsrdasv

D. nsrsnap_vss_save.exe

Answer: A

Question: 19

In an EMC NetWorker environment, a Lotus Notes backup just failed. To make sure the Lotus Notes NetWorker client is properly configured, what should be checked?

A. The Lotus Notes client name is set to the Lotus Notes database instance.

B. The Backup command attribute for the Lotus Notes client is set to nsrnotesv.

C. The Apps and Modules remote user and password fields are blank.

D. The client directive attribute is set to "Lotus Notes".

Answer: B

Question: 20

An EMC NetWorker customer wants to perform a complete backup of a SQL server with three databases. Which save set name should be used?

A. MSSQL:

B. MSSQL:DB

C. MSSQL:*

D. MSSQL:ALLDB

Answer: A

Question: 21

What is a characteristic of EMC NetWorker SnapImage module backups?

A. Block-level backups of dense file systems

B. Fast block-level backups of a file system mounted on a proxy server

C. Immediate recovery of a file system from a persistent snapshot

D. SAN-based image-level backup and recovery of file systems

Answer: A

Question: 22

You have been tasked to protect a newly configured Microsoft SQL server residing within a two-node cluster.

The following requirements must be met:

Backups must be performed daily.

All data must be transmitted over the LAN.

Hot backup must be performed automatically regardless of which node the virtual server resides on at the time of backup.

What software is required to achieve this?

A. NetWorker Module for Microsoft Applications and SnapImage

B. NetWorker PowerSnap Moduleonly

C. NetWorker Module for SQL only

D. NetWorker Module for SQL and PowerSnap

Answer: C

Question: 23

What is a characteristic of cloud volumes in EMC NetWorker?

A. Infinitely append able

B. Recyclable

C. Space cannot be reclaimed.

D. Data cannot be compressed or encrypted.

Answer: A

Question: 24

What is a characteristic of VCB backups in EMC NetWorker?

A. Requires a NetWorker client on each virtual machine

B. Requires a storage node on the VCB backup proxy

C. Supports image and file-based backups

D. Does not support LAN-free backup

Answer: C

Question: 25

A backup administrator is configuring an EMC NetWorker embedded storage node within an EMC Disk Library. To ensure that the embedded storage node is used to read the data during clone operations, what is required?

A. Add the Disk Library engine's hostname to the "Read hostname" field in the device properties.

B. Set the clone storage node value for the embedded storage node client resource to itself.

C. Create a client for the embedded storage node.

D. Create a clone pool and assign the appropriate rights to it.

Answer: A

Question: 1

Which three functions are executed using the Cisco TMS? (Choose three.)

A. endpoint system upgrades

B. edit call control

C. manage phone books

D. provision Jabber Instant Messaging

E. create voicemail account

F. create new conference

Answer: A,C,F

Question: 2

Which Cisco TMS extension integrates Cisco TMS with IBM Lotus Domino Server 7.0.x, 8.0.x, 8.5.x?

A. TMSXE

B. TMSXN

C. TMSBA

D. TMSPE

Answer: B

Question: 3

In Cisco TMS, the conference control center shows event logs in instance basis. Which two prefixes does the event log use to identify changes to series of single instances? (Choose two.)

A. Conference

B. Instance

C. Error

D. Information

E. Event

Answer: A,B

Question: 4

Which three functionalities can be performed by Cisco TMS? (Choose three.)

A. create conferences

B. provide routing for the video media streams

C. integrate with Cisco Unified Communications Manager through a SIP trunk

D. monitor the system status of video endpoints and their logs

E. run reports based on endpoint utilization

F. perform bandwidth management for endpoints based on inter and intra location settings

G. perform call routing decision for destinations that are not registered or local to the VCS

Answer: A,D,E

Question: 5

Where do you navigate to within Cisco TMS to place a call?

A. Systems > Navigator > Endpoint > Call Status

B. Systems > Monitoring > Endpoint > Place Call

C. Endpoint > Navigator > Call Status

D. Booking > List Conferences > Place Call

E. Systems > Navigator > Manage Dial Plan > Place Call

F. Systems > Navigator > Provisioning > Place Call

Answer: A

Question: 6

Which two protocols allow Cisco TMS to manage an EX60 endpoint? (Choose two.)

A. H.323

B. SNMP

C. SMTP

D. SIP

E. HTTP/HTTPS

F. RTCP

Answer: B,E

Question: 7

Which of the following is an option for using security when setting up a TMS conference?

A. if possible

B. Secure

C. Best effort

D. Mandatory

Answer: A

Question: 8

The Cisco TMS administrator is trying to add participants while booking a new conference. Which three options are presented? (Choose three.)

A. endpoints

B. users

C. Cisco MCUs

D. multiway address

E. directory numbers synched from Cisco Unified Communications Manager

F. SIP URIs synched from Cisco Unified Communications Manager

G. video AutoAttendant numbers

Answer: A,B,C

Question: 9

The Cisco TMS administrator wants to test outbound calls that originate from a video device that is added to the Cisco TMS. Which path does the administrator use to complete this operation in the Cisco TMS interface?

A. Systems > Navigator > Endpoint > Call Status tab in the endpoint configuration

B. Phone Books > Dial External tab

C. Booking > New Conference > Dial External tab

D. Systems > Provisioning > Users > Call Status

Answer: A

Question: 10

Which three system components are needed to provision a new endpoint in Cisco TMS? (Choose three.)

A. IP address

B. MAC address

C. SNMP community name

D. configuration template

E. enable remote access

F. persistent settings

G. E164 alias

H. gatekeeper

Answer: A,C,E

Question: 11

Which Cisco Tele Presence Management Suite Extension supports automated AD/LDAP import of users for creating an entitlement of up to 100,000 users and devices?

A. TMSXE

B. TMSXN

C. TMSAE

D. TMSPE

Answer: D

Question: 12

Which service can negatively impact the Cisco TMS ability to monitor a Cisco VCS?

A. Telnet

B. SNMP

C. SSH

D. TFTP

Answer: B

Question: 13

Which three components are the minimum needed to enable the FindMe feature for the users of an enterprise? (Choose three.)

A. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite

B. Cisco TelePresence Management Suite Provisioning Extension

C. Cisco Unified Communications Manager with Extension Mobility Service

D. Video Communication Server

E. Cisco IM and Presence

F. CiscoWebex On Premises deployment

G. Cisco TelePresence Conductor

Answer: A,B,D

Question: 14

Which four pieces of information does the Cisco TMS Provisioning Extension service provide the VCS? (Choose four.)

A. user

B. device

C. dial plan

D. routing rules

E. zone information

F. phone book

G. FindMe

H. gateway

Answer: A,B,F,G

Question: 15

When Cisco TMS provisioning is enabled, which four Cisco TMSPE services are used by the VCS for provisioning and FindMe data? (Choose four.)

A. server diagnostics

B. devices

C. users

D. PLCM directory service

E. FindMe

F. live service

G. database scanner service

H. phone books

Answer: B,C,E,H

Question: 1

Which three statements are true about Instructor Led Training Events/Tracks/Sessions?

A. They can also help to organize VILT and Online Classes and Courses.

B. They let administrators add an entire structure of ILT training to a Job Profile.

C. They help clients to organize Instructor-Led Training based on two levels of client criteria.

D. They permit users to select from multiple session dates when an Event or Track is added to a Learning Plan.

E. They make it easier for administrators to find specific training in the Instructor Led Training menu in the Control Panel.

Answer: A,B,D

Question: 2

The security policy for password complexity is for users to use passwords that conform to the rule: passwords must contain one uppercase letter, at least two numbers, and one nonalphanumeric symbol.

Which type of password rule must you configure?

A. sequence rule

B. occurrence rule

C. manual rule

D. advanced rule

Answer: D

Question: 3

You have checked all of the supervisor account permissions and all permissions for Manage Enrollments are selected.

Which two statements are true about this issue?

A. The supervisor account permissions do not include permissions to create enrollments.

B. The supervisors must be mapped to a specific group to be able to access additional permissions.

C. Supervisors must be mapped to a separate user role for additional permissions.

D. Supervisors require system administrator permissions to be able to create enrollments.

Answer: B,D

Question: 4

You are importing a new SCORM 1.2 course and select Embedded in the page.

Identify two results that occur when the import is complete.

A. The Course will not have a link in the course player to click on to start it within a new pop-up window.

B. The Course can be embedded in a LearnCenter course to run within the LearnCenter course player.

C. The Course is embedded in the LearnCenter course player and runs within the player.

D. The Course can be embedded in a LearnCenter page for the user to access and complete it.

Answer: A,D

Question: 5

An organization wants to group all their new hires so they can push out a new-hire learning plan. What would the Dynamic Criteria settings look like when configuring the Dynamic Group?

A. Item Type = Users; Field Name = New Hire; Operator = Equal To; Value = Yes

B. Item Type = Users; Field Name = New Hire; Operator = Less Than; Value = 90 days

C. Item Type = Job Profiles; Field Name = Job Profile Name; Operator = Equal To; Value = New Hire

D. Item Type = Learning Plans; Field Name = Learning Plan Name; Operator = Equal To; Value = New Hire Plan

Answer: C

Question: 6

What feature is used to display additional information, about a question or answer, after the user has made an answer choice?

A. General feedback

B. Question feedback

C. Answer feedback

D. Answer categories

Answer: D

Question: 7

A client wants to create individual user accounts where users must set a new password the first time they access the LearnCenter and every three months after that.

Which two options must set to achieve the client’s desired result, in addition to the required fields of Username, Email, Password, and Confirm Password?

A. Force User to Change Password on First Login

B. Future Expiration Set to Every 90 Days

C. Use a System Generated Password

D. Insert Existing User from Another LearnCenter

Answer: A,B

Question: 8

You have configured a user role for HR reporting administrators and mapped users to this role using an HR Reporting Admin group.

An HR reporting administrator user logs in to the system and notices that he/she is unable to access the Control Panel to create or run reports and asks you to investigate the issue.

While performing a quick check, you are able to confirm that the user has been assigned to the correct groups, but the permissions are missing.

Identify three reasons why this happened.

A. The users were not mapped to thegroup when they were first assigned to the role, and you need to update the mapped users for this role.

B. The HR Reporting Administrator role has been set to inactive.

C. The user account has been set to inactive.

D. The HR Reporting Administrator role does not have the permissions to manage reports.

Answer: A,B,D

Question: 9

What are three reasons for this issue?

A. You have selected a different file name during the import other than theimsmanifest.xmlfile.

B. The new course is missing theimsmanifest.xmlfilewithin the folder structure.

C. The course files were loaded to the AICC folder of the SFTP site instead of the SCORM folder.

D. The folder with the course files on the SFTP is written in capital letters but your path in the import is in lowercase.

E. Youdid not include the “files/” at the beginning of your file path to the course files.

Answer: A,C,E

Question: 10

What must you do to meet this requirement?

A. Create a Category for each department, map the department’s training for the corresponding Category, and use the Category as a filter.

B. Create a Training Offering for each department, map the department’s training to the corresponding Training Offering, and use the Training Offering as filter.

C. Create an Assignment for each department, map the department’s training to the corresponding Assignment, and use the Assignment as a filter.

D. Create a Learning Plan for each department, map the department’s training for the corresponding Learning Plan, and use the Learning Plan as a filter.

Answer: A

Question: 1

How can an administrator copy an existing backup image of client1.example.com from an Advanced Disk storage unit to a Media Server Deduplication Pool (MSDP)?

A. run bpimport with the source and the destination storage unit

B. create a Storage Lifecycle Policy that contains a duplication to the MSDP pool

C. run bpduplicate with the backup ID and the destination storage unit

D. run nbreplicate with the backup ID and the destination storage unit

Answer: D

Question: 2

An administrator has a backup policy with the following attributes:

5 paths listed in the Backup Selections list

3 clients listed in the Clients list

Allow multiple data streams is selected

Max Jobs per Client value set to 4

How many jobs go Active when the job is started, excluding parent jobs?

A. 8

B. 9

C. 12

D. 15

Answer: C

Question: 3

How can an administrator determine the storage and database paths for a Media Server Deduplication Pool?

A. run the Configure Disk Storage Server wizard for the MSDP

B. view Storage Unit > View Properties for the MSOP storage unit

C. view Disk Pool > Disk volumes for the MSDP disk pool

D. view Storage Server > Properties for the storage server

Answer: C

Question: 4

Which command can an administrator run to test and analyze connections between master servers, media servers, and clients for multiple Net Back up ports?

A. bperror

B. bpconfig

C. bpresolver

D. bptestnetconn

Answer: D

Question: 5

A Netbackup environment suffers from intermittent network outages between the Media Server Drduplication Pool (MSOP) media server and clients during the backup window. This results in multiple backup failures.

Mow should an administrator overcome the backup failure issue?

A. enable Network Resiliency

B. configure client-side deduplication

C. increase the client connect timeout

D. increase the CR_STATS_TIMLR interval

Answer: A

Question: 6

An administrator needs to store secure tape copies of protected data to an offsite location.

How can the administrator automatically eject tape media daily and create detailed reports?

A. encrypt the tapes using software encryption and use a storage lifecycle policy to perform automatic ejects and create reports

B. enable the encryption attribute on the vault policy to perform automated ejects and create reports

C. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a vault policy to perform automated ejects and create reports

D. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a storage lifecycle policy to perform automated ejects and create reports

Answer: C

Question: 7

Some NetBackup jobs are affected by the failure of a disk in an Advanced Disk pool, but the jobs are unavailable to view in the Activity Monitor.

In which two places can the administrator view Net Backup jobs affected by the disk failure? (Select two.)

A. Media and Device Management > Device Monitor > Disk Pool

B. Net Backup Management > Reports > Disk Reports > Disk logs

C. Net Backup Management > Reports > Disk Reports > Disk Pool Status

D. Net Backup Management > Reports > Disk Reports > Disk Storage Unit Status

E. Net Backup Management > Reports > Media Logs

Answer: AD

Question: 8

An administrator has a scheduled policy has a scheduled policy backs up 20 clients, each with multiple mount points and multiple data streams enabled. One of the jobs has failed and is in an Incomplete slate in the Activity Monitor.

Mow should the administrator verify the incomplete job runs prior to the next scheduled backup?

A. run a manual job the client

B. resume the job

C. run a manual job for the mount point

D. resume the parent job

Answer: B

Question: 9

A backup image on tape is due to expire in one week. The administrator needs to keep the image available for restore indefinitely.

Which two methods can be used to accomplish this goal? (Select two.)

A. use the bpexpdate command to change the expiration date of the image

B. use the bpretlevel command to customize the retention level

C. use the bpimmedia command to freeze the tape

D. use the bpduplicate command to create a copy with an infinite retention

E. use the vmchange command to change the expiration date of the tape

Answer: A, D

Question: 10

Refer to the exhibit.

A backup job configured with a retention level of 2 and Policy volume pool set to the server_tapes is failing due to Status Code 96: Unable to allocate media for backup. See the output of the available_media command below:

Which task in the NetBackup Administration Console should the administrator perform to resolve the status code 96 error?

A. Change volume C11201 to the scratch_pool volume pool

B. Change volume E02002 to the scratch_pool volume pool

C. Change volume E02004 to the scratch_pool volume pool

D. Change volume E02003 to the scratch_pool volume pool

Answer: C

Question: 11

Winch backup storage is unsupported with media server load balancing?

A. BasicDisk

B. Media Server Deduplication Pool

C. AdvancedDisk

D. Media Manager storage

Answer: D

Question: 12

Which two storage unit types can be configured in NetBackup? (Select two.)

A. deduplication

B. NDMP

C. robot

D. media manager

E. tape

Answer: B, D

Question: 13

A NetBackup policy is configured to back up the following paths for a client:

D:\stage

E:\data

E:\home

F:\production

Multistreaming is enabled for the backups, and multiplexing is set to 4. Backup streams are running slowly.

Which step should the administrator consider to improve backup performance?

A. increase the multiplexing level

B. back up only one stream from each physical device on the client

C. disable multistreaming

D. increase the number of data buffers

Answer: B

Question: 14

Storage life-cycle policy SLP1 is used to perform a backup and duplication. The backup is always a small 100MB backup. The master server host properties for SLP Parameters are set to the default values.

How can the administrator ensure the duplications run as soon as possible after the backup completes?

A. reduce the Job submission Interval setting to 0

B. reduce the Minimum size per duplication job setting to 50MB

C. right-click SLP1 and select Manual Relocation to Final Destination

D. increase the priority for secondary operations in the SLP

Answer: D

Question: 15

An administrator configures a default Standard die system backup policy, which backs up very large file systems from a set of clients, There are multiple scheduled backup attempts configured.

How can the administrator reduce the amount of time needed to complete these backup jobs alter failures?

A. configure the Take checkpoints every policy setting

B. increase the Job retry delay host property setting

C. use the Resume Job action instead of Restart Job

D. increase the Client connect timeout host property setting

Answer: A

Question: 1

How can an administrator copy an existing backup image of client1.example.com from an Advanced Disk storage unit to a Media Server Deduplication Pool (MSDP)?

A. run bpimport with the source and the destination storage unit

B. create a Storage Lifecycle Policy that contains a duplication to the MSDP pool

C. run bpduplicate with the backup ID and the destination storage unit

D. run nbreplicate with the backup ID and the destination storage unit

Answer: D

Question: 2

An administrator has a backup policy with the following attributes:

5 paths listed in the Backup Selections list

3 clients listed in the Clients list

Allow multiple data streams is selected

Max Jobs per Client value set to 4

How many jobs go Active when the job is started, excluding parent jobs?

A. 8

B. 9

C. 12

D. 15

Answer: C

Question: 3

How can an administrator determine the storage and database paths for a Media Server Deduplication Pool?

A. run the Configure Disk Storage Server wizard for the MSDP

B. view Storage Unit > View Properties for the MSOP storage unit

C. view Disk Pool > Disk volumes for the MSDP disk pool

D. view Storage Server > Properties for the storage server

Answer: C

Question: 4

Which command can an administrator run to test and analyze connections between master servers, media servers, and clients for multiple Net Back up ports?

A. bperror

B. bpconfig

C. bpresolver

D. bptestnetconn

Answer: D

Question: 5

Mow should an administrator overcome the backup failure issue?

A. enable Network Resiliency

B. configure client-side deduplication

C. increase the client connect timeout

D. increase the CR_STATS_TIMLR interval

Answer: A

Question: 6

An administrator needs to store secure tape copies of protected data to an offsite location.

How can the administrator automatically eject tape media daily and create detailed reports?

A. encrypt the tapes using software encryption and use a storage lifecycle policy to perform automatic ejects and create reports

B. enable the encryption attribute on the vault policy to perform automated ejects and create reports

C. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a vault policy to perform automated ejects and create reports

D. use tape drives that support hardware encryption and use a storage lifecycle policy to perform automated ejects and create reports

Answer: C

Question: 7

Some NetBackup jobs are affected by the failure of a disk in an Advanced Disk pool, but the jobs are unavailable to view in the Activity Monitor.

In which two places can the administrator view Net Backup jobs affected by the disk failure? (Select two.)

A. Media and Device Management > Device Monitor > Disk Pool

B. Net Backup Management > Reports > Disk Reports > Disk logs

C. Net Backup Management > Reports > Disk Reports > Disk Pool Status

D. Net Backup Management > Reports > Disk Reports > Disk Storage Unit Status

E. Net Backup Management > Reports > Media Logs

Answer: AD

Question: 8

Mow should the administrator verify the incomplete job runs prior to the next scheduled backup?

A. run a manual job the client

B. resume the job

C. run a manual job for the mount point

D. resume the parent job

Answer: B

Question: 9

A backup image on tape is due to expire in one week. The administrator needs to keep the image available for restore indefinitely.

Which two methods can be used to accomplish this goal? (Select two.)

A. use the bpexpdate command to change the expiration date of the image

B. use the bpretlevel command to customize the retention level

C. use the bpimmedia command to freeze the tape

D. use the bpduplicate command to create a copy with an infinite retention

E. use the vmchange command to change the expiration date of the tape

Answer: A, D

Question: 10

Refer to the exhibit.

Which task in the NetBackup Administration Console should the administrator perform to resolve the status code 96 error?

A. Change volume C11201 to the scratch_pool volume pool

B. Change volume E02002 to the scratch_pool volume pool

C. Change volume E02004 to the scratch_pool volume pool

D. Change volume E02003 to the scratch_pool volume pool

Answer: C

Question: 11

Winch backup storage is unsupported with media server load balancing?

A. BasicDisk

B. Media Server Deduplication Pool

C. AdvancedDisk

D. Media Manager storage

Answer: D

Question: 12

Which two storage unit types can be configured in NetBackup? (Select two.)

A. deduplication

B. NDMP

C. robot

D. media manager

E. tape

Answer: B, D

Question: 13

A NetBackup policy is configured to back up the following paths for a client:

D:\stage

E:\data

E:\home

F:\production

Multistreaming is enabled for the backups, and multiplexing is set to 4. Backup streams are running slowly.

Which step should the administrator consider to improve backup performance?

A. increase the multiplexing level

B. back up only one stream from each physical device on the client

C. disable multistreaming

D. increase the number of data buffers

Answer: B

Question: 14

How can the administrator ensure the duplications run as soon as possible after the backup completes?

A. reduce the Job submission Interval setting to 0

B. reduce the Minimum size per duplication job setting to 50MB

C. right-click SLP1 and select Manual Relocation to Final Destination

D. increase the priority for secondary operations in the SLP

Answer: D

Question: 15

An administrator configures a default Standard die system backup policy, which backs up very large file systems from a set of clients, There are multiple scheduled backup attempts configured.

How can the administrator reduce the amount of time needed to complete these backup jobs alter failures?

A. configure the Take checkpoints every policy setting

B. increase the Job retry delay host property setting

C. use the Resume Job action instead of Restart Job

D. increase the Client connect timeout host property setting

Answer: A

Question: 1

The Uniform Securities Act (USA) is

A. a body of laws governing the purchase and sale of securities within a single state.

B. a set of guidelines for individual states to follow when formulating their own securities’ laws.

C. a group of laws requiring state-issued securities, such as municipal bonds, to be registered with.

D. federal legislation that requires all states to adopt the same registration requirements for all.

Answer: B

Explanation:

The Uniform Securities Act (USA) provides a model for states to follow when formulating their own securities laws. It does not, itself, contain any laws.

Question: 2

Once you have passed the Series 63 examination, which entity must then approve your application to sell securities?

A. FINRA

B. NASAA

C. SEC

D. the state administrator

Answer: D

Explanation:

Once you have passed the Series 63 exam, it is the state administrator who can approve or deny your registration. NASAA developed the Uniform Securities Agent State Law Examination and FINRA administers it. The SEC is not a party to the state registration process.

Question: 3

Which of the following securities would not necessarily be exempt from state registration?

A. a stock listed on the Tokyo Stock Exchange

B. a bond guaranteed by the Canadian government

C. a bond issued by another state’s employees’ credit union

D. a stock listed as a NASDAQ National Market Issue.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Stocks listed on the Tokyo Stock Exchange would not necessarily be exempt from state registration. Stocks that are registered with the SEC, such as NASDAQ National Market Issue stocks, securities issued or guaranteed by the Canadian government, and securities issued or guaranteed by banks or credit unions are all exempt.

Question: 4

Moe is a registered investment adviser doing business under the name of MoeMoney Investment Advisers, LLC. Larry, Curly, and Mary all hold positions with the firm. Larry is on the board of directors; Mary is a sales representative for the firm; and Curly is an administrative assistant, who performs clerical duties.

Given that Moe is already a registered investment adviser, which of the other three are automatically registered as investment adviser representatives?

A. Larry only

B. Larry and Mary only

C. Larry, Mary and Curly

D. Mary and Curly only

Answer: A

Explanation:

As a director of the firm, Larry would automatically be registered as an investment adviser representative of MoeMoney Investment Advisers. Although directors and officers of the firm are automatically registered as investment adviser representatives, Mary, as a sales representative, would have to apply for her own registration. Curly does not need to be registered since he performs only clerical duties.

Question: 5

Jack is employed by NewCorp, which is engaging in an initial public offering (IPO). Jack will need to register as a sales representative if he:

A. engages in transactions with the underwriters of the IPO for the purpose of taking the firm public.

B. represents NewCorp in any transactions with financial institutions.

C. participates in the selling of the new stock to individual investors.

D. Jack will need to register as a sales representative if he performs any one of the above activities.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Jack will need to register as a sales representative if he participates in the sale of new stock to individual investors. Those who deal directly with the public need to register as sales representatives under the Uniform Securities Act. If Jack limits his involvement to transactions with the underwriters or financial institutions, he need not register.

Question: 6

Blue Sky Laws are designed to:

A. protect investors from fraud in their securities market transactions.

B. protect agents, broker-dealers, and investment advisers and their representatives from spurious allegations of fraudulent activity.

C. enhance the tourism industry within a state.

D. favor investment in companies that engage in environmentally friendly practices.

Answer: A

Explanation:

The main purpose of Blue Sky Laws is to protect individual investors from fraud in their securities market transactions. Requiring the registration of new security issues and the registration of those persons who advise individual investors as well as those involved in the purchase and sale of securities to the public are just some of the regulations designed to do this. There are no provisions designed to protect agents, broker-dealers, or investment advisers and their representatives in any regard.

Question: 7

An individual who represents a broker-dealer in the buying and selling of securities is called a(n):

A. underwriter

B. issuer

C. agent

D. administrator

Answer: C

Explanation:

An individual who represents a broker-dealer in buying and selling securities is called an agent or a registered representative. An agent may also work for an issuer, which refers to the entity that is selling securities to raise money for itself. An underwriter is the entity that aids the issuer in bringing the new securities to market. Administrator is the title many states use to refer to the official in charge of enforcing the state’s securities regulations.

Question: 8

Which of the following statements best explains the difference between an agent and a broker-dealer?

A. An agent is an individual who represents a broker-dealer or an issuer and buys and sells securities he does not own in return for a commission on the transactions he executes. A broker-dealer may also buy and sell securities for his own portfolio, in which case the broker-dealer enjoys any price appreciation on those securities.

B. A broker-dealer must be licensed in the state in which he conducts business, but there are no separate licensing requirements for agents.

C. Agents are engaged exclusively in the purchase and sale of stocks whereas broker-dealers also buy and sell bonds and option contracts.

D. Agents conduct their business exclusively in the secondary market, while broker-dealers also operate in the primary market.

Answer: A

Explanation:

The main difference between an agent and a broker-dealer is that an agent represents either a broker-dealer or an issuer and buys and sells securities he doesn’t own, receiving a commission for the trades he executes. A broker-dealer, when functioning as a dealer, is buying and selling for his own portfolio, thereby profiting from any price appreciation in the assets in his portfolio. Both agents and broker-dealers must meet state licensing requirements; both engage in the purchase and sale of stocks, bonds, and option contracts; and both operate in both the primary and secondary markets.

Question: 9

on No: 9

Rich Writewell wants to begin publishing an independent weekly financial newsletter that will provide investment recommendations as well as other financial news items to the general public. Rich hopes that his newsletter will achieve nationwide circulation within a few months.

Which of the following statements is true?

A. Rich will have to register as an investment adviser since his publication will include investment recommendations.

B. Rich will have to register as an investment adviser only if he sells this newsletter to the public. If the publication is to be distributed free of charge, he will not have to register.

C. Rich may be exempt from registering as an investment adviser if he is a lawyer, accountant, engineer, or teacher. Otherwise, he will have to register.

D. Rich will not have to register as an investment adviser since he is publishing a legitimate financial newsletter for distribution to the general public.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Rich will not have to register as an investment adviser since he is publishing a legitimate financial newsletter that will be distributed to the general public. The definition of the term “investment adviser” excludes publishers of bona fide business or financial publications that are published regularly and have general circulation.

Question: 10

Erin is a registered agent who works for SecureMoney Brokers-dealers. One of her clients, Mrs. McTurk, is a recently-widowed woman who relies on Erin for advice about her investment portfolio. Mrs. McTurk reminds Erin of her own grandmother, and she is happy to provide guidance within the sphere of her own knowledge.

Based on these facts, which of the following statements is true?

A. SecureMoney Broker-dealers must register as an investment adviser since one of its employees is providing investment advice.

B. Erin must register as an investment adviser since she is providing investment advice.

C. SecureMoney Broker-dealers must register as an investment adviser since one of its employees is providing investment advice, and Erin must register as an investment adviser representative as the firm’s employee.

D. Neither SecureMoney Broker-dealers nor Erin must register as an investment adviser based on the facts provided.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Neither SecureMoney Broker-dealers nor Erin must register as an investment adviser based on the facts provided since neither the broker-dealer nor Erin is receiving any compensation for the advice Erin is giving Mrs. McTurk. In this instance, the advice provided is considered incidental to the broker-dealer business.

Question: 11

Which of the following would not fall under the classification of “institutional investor”?

A. Prudential Insurance

B. Chase Bank

C. Neuring Investment Advisers

D. Franklin Templeton Mutual Funds

Answer: C

Explanation:

Nuering Investment Advisers would not fall under the classification of “institutional investor.” Institutional investors are defined as banks, insurance companies, mutual funds, some pension plans, and broker-dealers registered under the Securities Exchange Act of 1934. Investment advisers are not part of this group.

Question: 12

Which of the following is an example of a non-issuer transaction?

A. IBM sells a new issue of bonds to an insurance company.

B. Jose purchases a 10-year bond issued by Progress Energy when it has 6 years remaining to maturity.

C. Google offers more shares of its stock for sale to the public.

D. NewCorp, which has been a privately held company, is engaging in an initial public offering (IPO) of its stock.

Answer: B

Explanation:

When Jose buys a 10-year bond that has 6 years remaining to maturity, it is a non-issuer transaction since he is buying it in the secondary market from another investor, and Progress Energy does not benefit from the transaction. If a firm receives money when its securities are sold, it is considered an issuer transaction; otherwise it is a non-issuer transaction. When Progress Energy originally issued the bond, it had ten years to maturity, and Progress Energy received the proceeds from the bond issue; that was an issuer transaction. When Jose buys the bond, another investor is receiving the proceeds. When IBM sells new bonds, regardless of whether it is to the general public or to an institutional investor, IBM receives the proceeds from the transaction, so it is an issuer transaction. Similarly, when a firm that is already publicly held, like Google, sells more shares, the firm receives money from the sale, just as when a firm that is going public for the first time, like NewCorp, receives the proceeds generated through the IPO. Those are examples of issuer transactions.

Question: 13

Which of the following is not considered to be a security, as defined by the Uniform Securities Act (USA)?

A. a debenture

B. a certificate of deposit (CD)

C. a put option

D. an annuity contract wherein an insurance company promises to pay a fixed sum, either in a lump amount or through periodic payments.

Answer: D

Explanation:

The Uniform Securities Act excludes annuity contracts wherein an insurance company promises either to pay a fixed sum, either in a lump amount or through periodic payments, from its definition of a security. Debentures, CDs, and option contracts are all classified as securities under the USA.

Question: 14

Which of the following scenarios would not be considered a “sale,” as defined by the Uniform Securities Act (USA)?

I. Yoshito owned shares of Minnow Corporation and received shares of Whale Corporation from Whale when it merged with Minnow.

II. Olivia’s uncle, an agent with SecureMoney Brokers, sold Olivia ten call options on the stock of Microsoft.

III. Hans purchased a bond of Indebted Corporation that had detachable warrants and subsequently sold the warrants.

IV. Tom pledged some shares of stock he owned personally to secure a business loan for his company.

A. Neither I nor II would be considered sales.

B. Neither II nor III would be considered sales.

C. Neither I nor IV would be considered sales.

D. Neither III nor IV would be considered sales.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Explanation: Neither Scenario I nor Scenario IV describes sales as defined by the USA. When an investor receives securities from Company X when Company X merges with a company in which the investor owns stock, Company X is not considered to have sold those securities to the investor. Likewise, when a person uses securities he owns as collateral for a loan, the USA does not consider this to be a sale of the securities.

Question: 15

Jeremy Sly considered himself somewhat of an inventor. The only problem was that his day job interfered with his opportunity to exercise his creativity. He came up with a plan to get outside investors to support his inventive activities. To this end, he produced and distributed a brochure advertising partnership interests with a guaranteed return on investment of at least 15% after the first 12 months, based on what he had allegedly generated from his other (non-existent) inventions.

Given these facts, is Jeremy guilty of any security violations under the Uniform Securities Act (USA)?

A. No. The facts don’t indicate whether any partnership interests were actually sold, and there can be no violation unless there is a sale.

B. No. An interest in a partnership is not considered a security.

C. No. It is not against the law to believe in oneself and promote one’s ideas.

D. Yes. Even an “offer” to sell securities must not contain any untruths.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Yes. Jeremy is guilty of security violations under the Uniform Securities Act when he provides misleading information when offering securities for sale, even if no securities are actually sold. Partnership interests fall under the definition of securities, and Jeremy’s claim to have generated a return of at least 15% on other inventions that he never created is an absolute falsehood.

Question: 16

Although an Administrator has broad powers, he or she cannot:

A. issue subpoenas involving compulsory attendance.

B. gather evidence.

C. deliver a judicial injunction.

D. formulate rules and orders.

Answer: C

Explanation:

An Administrator has broad powers, but he or she cannot deliver a judicial injunction because an Administrator does not have the authority bestowed on a court of law. The Administrator can issue subpoenas to require attendance, participate in evidence gathering, and formulate rules and orders.

Question: 17

“Federal covered securities” were defined and exempted from state registration requirements by the:

A. National Securities Markets Improvement Act of 1996 (NSMIA.)

B. Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act of 1999 (GLBA.)

C. Uniform Securities Act (USA.)

D. National Conference of Commissioners on Uniform State Laws (NCCUSL.)

Answer: A

Explanation:

The National Securities Markets Improvement Act of 1996 defined “federal covered securities” and exempted them from state registration requirements. The Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act focused on financial institutions and provided for their registration as broker-dealers under certain conditions. The National Conference of Commissioners on Uniform State Laws (NCCUSL) is the organization that drafted the Uniform Securities Act, which is not comprised of actual laws itself, but is, instead, just a guideline for each state to use when formulating its own securities laws.

Question: 18

Rich Quick is a broker-dealer licensed in the state of Massachusetts and has offices only within the state. Two of Rich Quick’s clients regularly vacation in Florida during the winter months, and Rich Quick executes trades for them when they call him from out-of-state.

Based on these facts,

I. Rich Quick needs to register as a broker-dealer in the state of Florida as well.

II. Rich Quick needs to register only as an agent in the state of Florida.

III. Rich Quick needs to establish an office in the state of Florida in order to transact business.

IV. Rich Quick need not register in Florida.

A. Statements I and III are true.

B. Statements II and III are true.

C. Only Statement I is true.

D. Only Statement IV is true.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Based on the facts provided, Rich Quick need not register in Florida since he has no offices in the state of Florida, and he is conducting business for existing clients who are merely vacationing in Florida and are not residents of the state.

Question: 19

Most individual state securities laws today are based on:

A. the Uniform Securities Act of 1956.

B. the Uniform Securities Act of 2002.

C. the National Securities Markets Improvement Act of 1996.

D. the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act of 1999.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Most individual state securities laws continue to be based on the 1956 Uniform Securities Act. Although the Uniform Securities Act was revised in 1985, 1988, and 2002, none of these revisions have been widely incorporated by the individual states. The National Securities Markets Improvement Act of 1996 dealt mainly with the definition of federal covered securities and more efficient management of mutual funds. The focus of the Gramm-Leach-Bliley Act of 1999 was on financial institutions.

Question: 20

BigCash Broker-Dealers is registered in the state and is in the process of purchasing a smaller broker-dealer, Target Investments, as a subsidiary. Target Investments is also registered in the state.

After completing the purchase, what actions must BigCash take regarding registration of its new subsidiary?

A. BigCash need do nothing since Target Investments was already duly registered with the state as a broker-dealer.

B. BigCash must file a new application with the state to register its new subsidiary, but will be able to utilize the remainder of any annual filing fees that Target Investments had paid for the year.

C. BigCash must file a new application with the state to register its new subsidiary and must also pay the annual filing fees required by the Administrator.

D. BigCash will need to pay the annual filing fees required by the Administrator, but will not need to file a new registration application.

Answer: B

Explanation:

After completing the purchase, BigCash will have to file a new registration application for its new subsidiary, but BigCash can utilize the remainder of any annual filing fees that Target Investments had paid for the year. Although registration applications are never transferable, annual filing fees are.

Question: 1

Which of the following preferred issues is likely to fluctuate most in value?

A. cumulative preferred

B. callable preferred

C. convertible preferred

D. broker preferred

Answer: C

Explanation:

Convertible preferred. Because of the conversion feature, convertibles are more closely linked to the price of the common stock. In addition, since the dividend rate on convertible preferred is usually lower than other preferred issues, the convertibles are more sensitive to interest rate fluctuations.

Question: 2

Which of the following rights does an ADR holder not have?

A. preemptive rights

B. the right to vote for your mother-in-law as a board member

C. the right to transfer ownership

D. the right to see financial statements

Answer: A

Explanation:

preemptive rights. Holders of ADRs do not have preemptive rights, although they have most other rights of shareholders, including the right to vote for board members-even a mother-in-law

Question: 3

A corporation makes a rights offering to raise $10 million of new capital by issuing one million shares of common stock. If it already has six million shares outstanding at the time of the offering.

How many rights will the corporation distribute to its shareholders?

A. one million

B. six million

C. ten million

D. sixteen million

Answer: B

Explanation:

six million. One right for each outstanding share is distributed.

Question: 4

A corporation makes a rights offering to raise $10 million of new capital by issuing one million shares of common stock. If it already has six million shares outstanding at the time of the offering.

What is the subscription price per share?

A. $4

B. $6

C. $7

D. $10

Answer: D

Explanation:

$10. There are one million shares divided into the $10 million of new capital.

Question: 5

A corporation makes a rights offering to raise $10 million of new capital by issuing one million shares of common stock. If it already has six million shares outstanding at the time of the offering.

What subscription ratio is the corporation establishing for each new share?

A. 6 rights per share

B. 10 rights per share

C. 6 million rights per share

D. 10 million rights per share

Answer: A

Explanation:

6 rights per share. Each share receives a right and there are six million shares receiving rights to one million new shares. So six rights are required for one share.

Question: 6

Bubba owns stock with cumulative voting rights. There are five vacancies on a board and he owns 100 shares of stock. Bubba is entitled to cast the following votes:

A. a total of 100 votes

B. a total of 100 votes per

C. a total of 500 votes

D. you are not allowed to vote

Answer: C

Explanation:

500 votes. Under cumulative voting, the number of directors is multiplied by the number of shares owned. The votes may be cast all for a single director or divided in any manner among the directors.

Question: 7

The definition of debentures is:

A. a loan secured by real estate

B. collateralized securities

C. a worthless security

D. securities backed by the general credit of the issuers but no specific collateral

Answer: D

Explanation:

securities backed by the general credit of the issuers but no specific collateral. And in the case of some issuers, that may be fairly worthless.

Question: 8

Convertible bonds have all of the following features except:

A. an ability to protect a short position on the stock into which they are convertible

B. permissibility for use as collateral

C. a normally higher yield than non-convertible bonds of the same issuer

D. fluctuations influenced by changes in the price of the underlying common stock

Answer: C

Explanation:

a normally higher yield than non-convertible bonds of the same issuer. Remember that the question says “except” for this feature. Convertible bonds normally do NOT have a higher yield than non-convertible bonds of the same issuer. Convertibles usually have a lower yield than non -convertible sisters.

Question: 9

Although a corporation has no earnings in a particular year, it is obligated to pay interest on all its outstanding debt except the following:

A. convertible subordinated debentures

B. collateral trust bonds

C. adjustment bonds

D. equipment trust certificates

Answer: C

Explanation:

adjustment bonds. These bonds are also known as income bonds. Interest is paid only if there is income.

Question: 10

Interest rates rise from 5.10% to 5.30%. For a prospective buyer of five $1,000 bonds, what is the increase in interest payments as a result of the rise?

A. $20

B. $100

C. $2

D. $10

Answer: D

Explanation:

$10. Interest rates increased by 20 basis points. One basis point is 10 cents. So 20 basis points is $2. But…since there are five bonds, that $2 x 5 = $10.

Question: 11

Common stocks for which of the following industries are most likely to decline in value when interest rates rise?

A. automobile manufacturers

B. airlines

C. stock brokers

D. public utility companies

Answer: D

Explanation:

public utility companies. Interest rates most affect the companies with the greatest amount of debt. Public utility companies are highly leveraged. Hence, they most likely incur the largest effect of rising interest rates.

Question: 12

Convertible preferred stock has all of the following characteristics except:

A. a lower dividend rate than non-convertible preferred

B. a dilution of earnings if converted into common stock

C. a requirement for shareholders to always accept the call price when called

D. required dividend payments to shareholders before any dividends are paid to holders of common stock

Answer: C

Explanation:

a requirement for shareholders to always accept the call price when called. All of the other statements are true “except” this one. Convertible preferred shareholders have a n opportunity to convert to common stock. There is no forced call price.

Question: 13

Bubba buys a 5% bond that matures in 15 years with a 5.10 basis. How much did he pay for the bond?

A. 5.00

B. 98.96

C. 100.00

D. 105.10

Answer: B

Explanation:

98.96. A calculator is not required for this. Even Bubba knows the bond is obviously trading at a slight discount by yielding 5.10% instead of the coupon rate of 5%. If the yield was the same as the coupon rate, the price is 100.00.

Question: 14

Bonds are most often quoted as a percentage of:

A. face value

B. book value

C. market value

D. whatever value the broker says

Answer: A

Explanation:

face value. The price is 100.00 if the yield is the same as the coupon rate. A price of less than 100.00 means the yield is higher than the coupon rate. A price of more than 100.00 means the yield is lower than the coupon rate. The prices are a percentage of 100.00. However, treasury bonds and municipal bonds are not quoted in this way.

Question: 15

Which of the following is a right for shareholders of common stock?

A. the right to have the stock price increase

B. the right to vote about important matters of the company

C. the right to dividends

D. both B and C

Answer: B

Explanation:

the right to vote about important matters of the company. Shareholders have no expectation of stock price increase or dividends. They are entitled to receive dividends only if the board of directors declares them.

Question: 16

Who owns a corporation?

A. the owners of debentures

B. the holders of common stock

C. the holders of common stock and the holders of preferred stock

D. the government

Answer: C

Explanation:

the holders of common stock and the holders of preferred stock. The holders of all classes of stock are the owners. Each stock class has separate privileges, but all represent ownership. Even if the government is an owner, it holds shares of stock.

Question: 17

Which of the following is true of treasury stock?

A. it has voting rights

B. it is entitled to receive dividends

C. it is stock that has not been issued

D. it is stock that has been reacquired by the issuer

Answer: D

Explanation:

it is stock that has been reacquired by the issuer. Treasury stock has no voting rights and is not entitled to receive dividends. The shares have been issued but are no longer outstanding in the market.

Question: 18

Bubba decides to buy equity securities. Which of the following statements is always true about what Bubba is buying?

A. they are readily marketable

B. they have a fixed rate of return

C. they have a fixed maturity date

D. they are not secured by collateral

Answer: D

Explanation:

they are not secured by collateral. Equity is ownership, which has no collateral security…or any other kind of security such as a guaranteed return, maturity, or marketability.

Question: 19

Which of the following securities provides the longest term of option privilege?

A. puts

B. calls

C. warrants

D. rights

Answer: C

Explanation:

warrants. All of the others always have fixed maturity dates. Warrants often have no finite life and, if they do, it is a very long time.

Question: 20

A company may pay a declared dividend in which of the following ways:

A. with stock in a subsidiary company

B. with property

C. with cash

D. all of the above

Answer: D

Explanation:

all of the above. Dividends can be paid in all of these ways. They can also be paid with treasury stock or authorized but unissued stock.

Question: 21

Bubba owns a subordinated debenture in a company that is liquidating.

When will he get paid?

A. after the company pays its outstanding bills, but before paying bank loans

B. after the bills are paid and the bank is paid, but before the preferred shareholders

C. before the holders of secured debt

D. after the shareholders of preferred stock

Answer: B

Explanation:

after the bills are paid and the bank is paid, but before the preferred shareholders. As a creditor, Bubba is paid before any of the shareholders. But his position is subordinated to other creditors, like the bank and accounts payable.

Question: 22

When a corporation dissolves, who gets paid first?

A. bank lenders

B. senior bond holders

C. the tax collector

D. the lawyer

Answer: C

Explanation:

the tax collector. Taxes always have preference over any other creditors.

Question: 23

Bubba wants to buy a $4 convertible preferred with that has a $50 par value and is exchangeable for common stock at $47.50. If the preferred stock is trading at 52, what does Bubba calculate as the common stock price in order to be at parity with the preferred?

A. 47.50

B. 52.00

C. a little less than 49.38

D. a little more than 54.50

Answer: C

Explanation:

a little less than 49.38. Bubba needs a calculator to divide the par value of the preferred stock by the price of the common stock. He then divides the result into the price at which the preferred stock is trading.50 divided by 47.50 = 1.05352 divided by 1.053 = 49.38.

Question: 24

Which of the following is an analyst most likely to classify as a defensive issue?

A. the securities of a company that airplanes to the military

B. a stock of a large company

C. the common stock of a utility company

D. a corporate bond

Answer: C

Explanation:

the common stock of a utility company. The term “defensive issue” refers to a security that is least susceptible to swings in the business cycle.

Question: 25

Which securities do not receive dividends?

A. ADRs

B. warrants

C. common stock

D. preferred stock

Answer: B

Explanation:

warrants. All of the other choices receive dividends if they are declared. But only warrants are a specific security that never pays dividends.

Question: 26

Bubba buys a bond issued at par with a 5% coupon that is convertible into common stock at $40.

What conversion ratio does Bubba determine?

A. 40

B. 30

C. 25

D. 15

Answer: C

Explanation:

25. The conversion ratio is how many shares of common stock Bubba obtains by converting. Divide the bond price - $1,000 for a single bond - by the $40 conversion price.

Question: 27

Bubba buys a bond issued at par with a 5% coupon that is convertible into common stock at $40. The bond increases in value by 20 points.

What is the conversion parity of the stock?

A. $25

B. $40

C. $48

D. $50

Answer: C

Explanation:

$48. A 20-point increase results in a bond value of $1,200. Divide that by the conversion ratio of 25 shares to arrive at $48.

Question: 28

The most common type of bond issued by a well-established company is:

A. a debenture

B. a senior secured note

C. a convertible

D. an open-end mortgage

Answer: A

Explanation:

a debenture. Because of the company’s well-established financial condition, it issues a debenture that has no specific collateral and is only backed by the creditworthiness of the issuer.

Question: 29

A corporate bond is quoted as having a net change in value of plus one point.

By how much did the bond price increase?

A. $1,000

B. $100

C. $10

D. $1

Answer: C

Explanation:

$10. A point is 1% and bonds are priced in $1,000 increments. Multiplying $1,000 by 1% equals $10.

Question: 30

A basis point is:

A. 0.10%

B. 0.01%

C. 1.00%

D. 0.001%

Answer: B

Explanation:

0.01%. A basis point is one-hundredth of a point. Since a point is 1%, a basis point is 0.01%. A bond price change of one basis point is ten cents ($1,000 x 0.01%).

Question: 31

Bubba buys a $4 convertible preferred with a $50 par value that is exchangeable for common stock at 47.50. If the preferred stock is trading at 52 and the common stock at 51, Bubba determines that the preferred stock is:

A. overpriced and will quickly decline

B. selling at a 4% premium over conversion value

C. underpriced and should rise quickly

D. going to be called when the common stock price is $52

Answer: C

Explanation:

underpriced and should rise quickly. The parity price for the common stock is about $49.38 - determined as:50 / 47.50 = 1.053 52 / 1.053 = 49.38 Since the common stock is trading at 51, the preferred is underpriced.

Question: 32

A case of leverage is:

A. selling common stock short and buying warrants for the equivalent number of shares followed by subscribing to the shares and covering the short

B. borrowing at 6% and investing the funds at 10%

C. buying stock on the NYSE and later selling it the same day on the CBOE

D. redeeming a convertible bond before maturity

Answer: B

Explanation:

borrowing at 6% and investing the funds at 10%. Leverage is all about using money obtained at a lower cost than what can be earned deploying the funds elsewhere. It is unrelated to arbitrage.

Question: 33

Bubba holds 200 shares of common stock in a utility company and receives rights to subscribe to an additional 100 shares at $20. The utility company is raising $40 million of new capital.

How many rights does Bubba receive?

A. 20

B. 50

C. 100

D. 200

Answer: D

Explanation:

200. In an issue of rights, there is always one right per share. Bubba owns 200 shares and thus receives the same number of rights.

Question: 34

Bubba holds 200 shares of common stock in a utility company and receives rights to subscribe to an additional 100 shares at $20. The utility company is raising $40 million of new capital.

How many shares of common stock for the utility company were outstanding prior to the rights offering?

A. 2,000,000

B. 4,000,000

C. 1,000,000

D. 40,000,000

Answer: B

Explanation:

4,000,000. Bubba owns 200 shares and receives rights for 100 more. The basis for the rights offering is therefore one new share for each two shares outstanding. The utility company is raising $40 million by selling shares at $20. Therefore, the company is selling 2,000,000 new shares. Since the ratio of existing shares to new shares is 2 to 1, there must be 4,000,000 presently outstanding shares.

Question: 35

Bubba owns a perpetual warrant to buy one share of Internet Corporation common stock at $30. Internet Corporation stock is trading at 41.50 and is ex-dividend today at $0.75.

What is the market value of Bubba’s warrant?

A. 5.75

B. 5.62

C. 5.38

D. cannot be determined from this information

Answer: D

Explanation:

cannot be determined. Bubba can put away the calculator. The warrant is “perpetual” so the value is not determinable from today’s price of the common stock.

Question: 36

The preferred stock of Greatest Technology Corporation has a $100 par and is convertible into four shares of common stock. The preferred is trading at 104.50. The preferred is callable at 101. If the common stock price is presently 27.89, which of the following actions would be a successful arbitrage:

A. purchase 400 shares of common stock and sell 100 shares of preferred stock as “short exempt” (that is, the sale is exempt from the uptick rule)

B. purchase the preferred stock and sell an appropriate amount of the common stock “short exempt”

C. purchase both the common and the preferred stocks as a hedge against further market risk

D. purchase the preferred stock and let it be called, which is inevitable at these market prices

Answer: B

Explanation:

purchase the preferred stock and sell an appropriate amount of the common stock “short exempt”. Arbitrage is the nearly simultaneous purchase and sale of equal securities in different markets for a profit. Selling four shares of common stock for every one share of preferred stock purchased provides a profit. The transactions involve the same number of common shares because the preferred is convertible to common at a four to one ratio.

Question: 37

Commercial paper is typically issued with a maturity date not exceeding:

A. 90 days

B. 6 months

C. 270 days

D. 1 year

Answer: C

Explanation:

270 days. A characteristic of commercial paper is relatively short duration, normally not exceeding 270 days.

Question: 38

The minimum denomination for a US treasury bond is:

A. $100

B. $1,000

C. $10,000

D. $100,000

Answer: B

Explanation:

$1,000. This is the minimum denomination. Normally, US treasury bonds are in much larger denominations.

Question: 39

Which of the following has the least active secondary market?

A. treasury bills

B. banker’s acceptances

C. certificates of deposit

D. commercial paper

Answer: D

Explanation:

commercial paper. The sizes of secondary markets for these securities are listed in order with treasuries first, then banker’s acceptances, followed by certificates of deposit. There is only a very small secondary market for commercial paper.

Question: 40

Which of the following is not classified as a money market instrument?

A. banker’s acceptances

B. commercial paper

C. American Depository Receipts

D. treasury bills

Answer: C

Explanation:

American Depository Receipts. American Depository Receipts are used to facilitate transfer of ownership in foreign securities. They are not money market instruments.

Question: 1

Which of the following statements about the over-the-counter market is true?

A. Only penny stocks are traded in the over-the-counter market.

B. Trades in the over-the-counter market are conducted via the auction process.

C. Only bonds and other debt instruments are traded in the over-the-counter market.

D. Stocks that are listed on exchange floors are also traded in the over-the-counter market.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Stocks that are listed on exchange floors are also traded in the over-the-counter market. The term “third market” refers to over-the-counter trading of listed stocks. All types of securities-stocks, bonds, options, warrants, rights-trade over the counter. The over-the-counter market is a negotiated market, not an auction market.

Question: 2

Which of the following is not an auction market?

A. NASDAQ

B. NYSE

C. CHX

D. All of the above are auction markets

Answer: A

Explanation:

NASDAQ is not an auction market. NASDAQ is a computerized system of geographically dispersed securities’ dealers. As such, it is a negotiated market. The NYSE (New York Stock Exchange) and the CHX (Chicago Stock Exchange) are both auction markets.

Question: 3

The entity that serves as the auctioneer for trades conducted on an organized exchange floor is known as a:

A. registered trader.

B. specialist.

C. floor broker.

D. commission broker.

Answer: B

Explanation:

The entity that serves as the auctioneer for trades conducted on an organized exchange floor is known as a specialist. The specialist is assigned stocks by the exchange and is a market maker in those stocks. A registered trader is a private individual who buys and sells on his own account only. Floor brokers and commission brokers execute trades for other investors.

Question: 4

Which of the following statements about specialists is false?

A. Specialists are market makers in assigned stocks and, as such, can profit from these investments.

B. Specialists are required to maintain a fair and orderly market in their assigned stocks, meaning that they must buy if there is an excess of sell orders and sell out of their own portfolios if there is an excess of buy orders.

C. Specialists are employees of the exchange on which they oversee trades.

D. In addition to acting as market makers, specialists also act as agents and execute limit orders placed by commission brokers for their clients if the specified price is reached.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The statement that specialists are employees of the exchange on which they oversee trades is false. Specialists are separate firms that are members of the exchange. Specialists are market makers in the stocks that are assigned them by the exchange and can earn profits (or losses) on these investments, just like any other market maker. They are required to maintain a fair and orderly market in their assigned stocks, however, which means they sometimes must trade against the market. They also maintain a central limit order “book” in their assigned stocks.

Question: 5

NASDAQ market makers provide investors with assurance that:

A. there is a market for the listed security.

B. the investor will be able to buy or sell the security at a price he desires.

C. the investor will be investing in a high quality investment with relatively low risk.

D. NASDAQ market makers provide investors with no assurance whatsoever. It is “buyer beware.”

Answer: A

Explanation:

NASDAQ market makers provide investors with assurance that there is a market for the listed security by posting bid and ask prices for it. There is no guarantee, however, that the investor will be able to buy or sell the security at the price he desires or that the investment is high quality and low risk.

Question: 6

SuperDOT is:

A. an electronic communication network (ECN).

B. an electronic system whereby trades are executed on NASDAQ.

C. an electronic system used to place orders on the NYSE.

D. both A and C.

Answer: C

Explanation:

SuperDOT is an electronic system used to place market and limit orders on the NYSE whereby the orders are routed directly to the specialist in the assigned stocks. It is not an ECN, which is an electronic network that is designed to allow buyers and sellers to interact directly with each other, thereby bypassing the middlemen.

Question: 7

GoForBroke Investments has registered with the SEC to be a market maker in certain NASDAQ-listed securities. In order to be able to enter bid and ask quotes for the securities in which it is going to make a market, GoForBroke must subscribe to which level of NASDAQ?

A. Level I

B. Level II

C. Level III

D. Level IV

Answer: C

Explanation:

In order to enter bid and ask quotes, GoForBroke must subscribe to NASDAQ’s Level II I. Level I simply allows the user to view the highest bid and lowest ask price for a security, and Level II allows the user to view all the bid and ask quotes from all the market makers in a security, but only Level III allows the subscriber to enter quotes. There is no Level IV.

Question: 8

Which of the following is not a characteristic of all auction stock exchanges in the U.S.?

A. There is a central marketplace.

B. Stocks that are traded on the exchange must meet certain listing requirements, determined by the exchange.

C. In order to conduct a trade on the exchange, a broker must be a member of the exchange or hold a license to trade on the exchange.

D. If a stock is listed on one of these exchanges, it is not permitted to be listed on any other exchange.

Answer: D

Explanation:

The statement that does not describe a characteristic of all U.S. auction stock exchanges is D. Dual listing is permitted. Stocks listed on one exchange may also be listed on another. In fact, most of the trading on U.S. regional exchanges is in dual-listed stocks. All of the auction exchanges do have a central marketplace, listed stocks must meet listing requirements, and brokers wishing to conduct trades on the exchange must be members of the exchange or hold a license to trade on the exchange.

Question: 9

Which of the following is an example of a primary market transaction?

A. Exco Resources (XCO) sells a new issue of 7.5%, 8-year notes.

B. Ms. Talker calls her broker and places a market order to sell shares of AT&T (T) on the NYSE.

C. Mr. Safe purchases a Treasury bill with two weeks remaining to maturity.

D. Mr. Green places an order to buy shares of Sunvalley Solar, Inc. (SSOL), a stock selling on the OTC Bulletin Board.

Answer: A

Explanation:

Exco Resources’ new bond issue is a primary market transaction. The primary market refers to the market for new issues. The other three scenarios describe transactions in securities that are already being traded and are secondary market transactions.

Question: 10

NASDAQ is:

A. an acronym for Norway’s major stock exchange.

B. the government organization that insures accounts at U.S. brokerage firms.

C. a computerized system that links together the U.S. regional exchanges.

D. a computerized quotation system used in the over-the-counter market.

Answer: D

Explanation:

NASDAQ is a computerized quotation system that is used in the over-the-counter market. It allows NASDAQ market makers to enter bid and ask quotes and allows subscribers at lower levels to view the bid and ask quotes available.

Question: 11

All government bonds and the majority of corporate bonds are traded:

A. on the floor of the NYSE.

B. via electronic communication networks (ECNs).

C. on regional exchanges.

D. in the over-the-counter market.

Answer: D

Explanation:

All government bonds and the majority of corporate bonds are traded in the over-the-counter market.

Question: 12

Which of the following types of securities would not be traded in the over-the-counter market?

I. stock options

II. government bonds

III. corporate bonds

IV. corporate stocks

A. I only

B. I and IV only

C. III and IV only

D. All of the choices are traded in the over-the-counter market.

Answer: D

Explanation:

All of the choices listed-and more-are traded in the over-the-counter market: stock options, government bonds, corporate bonds, and corporate stocks. Additionally, securities such as warrants, rights, forward contracts, and foreign currencies also trade in the over-the-counter market.

Question: 13

Which of the following are duties of the specialist on an exchange floor?

I. executing limit orders if/when the limit price specified is reached

II. minimizing any imbalance in supply and demand for the stock(s) that the specialist is assigned

III. determining an opening price for each assigned stock every day

IV. serving as an auctioneer for the shares of the assigned stocks

A. I and II only

B. I, II, and IV only

C. I and IV only

D. I, II, III, and IV

Answer: D

Explanation:

All of the choices listed are duties of the specialist on an exchange floor. The specialist maintains a limit order “book” and executes those orders if/when the limit price is reached. The specialist is also charged with maintaining a fair and orderly market in the assigned securities, which means trading on his own account to ensure that the supply and demand of the stock’s shares match. Additionally, the specialist is responsible for setting the opening price for the assigned stock each day and for serving as the auctioneer for the shares of the stock.

Question: 14

The price at which an investor can sell a security to a market maker in the over-the-counter market is called the:

A. sale price.

B. put price.

C. bid price.

D. ask price.

Answer: C

Explanation:

An investor can sell a security to a market maker in the over -the-counter market at the bid price, which is the price at which the market maker is willing to buy the security.

Question: 15

Mary is interested in buying shares of the Lambchops Corporation, which sells over-the-counter. The market maker with the best bid price--$3.15--is Veggie Investments. The market maker with the best ask price--$3.27-is Carnivor Investments. Mary conducts trades in NYSE-listed stocks through her broker, Omnivor and Associates.

Given this scenario, which of the following statements is true?

A. Mary can buy shares of Lambchops Corporation at the bid price of $3.15 by contacting Veggie Investments directly.

B. Mary can buy shares of Lambchops Corporation at the ask price of $3.27 by contacting Carnivor Investments directly.

C. Mary can buy shares of Lambchops Corporation at the bid price of $3.15 by contacting Omnivor and Associates.

D. Mary can buy shares of Lambchops Corporation at the ask price of $3.27 by contacting Omnivor and Associates.

Answer: D

Explanation:

Mary can buy shares of Lambchops Corporation for $3.27 from the market maker with the best ask price, Carnivor, by contacting her broker, Omnivor and Associates, which will execute the transaction. The ask price is the price at which market makers in the over-the-counter market are willing to sell the stock, and over-the-counter transactions, like NYSE transactions, are executed by brokers.

Question: 16

Noah Mete is interested in selling his shares of the Lambchops Corporation, which trades over-the-counter. The market maker with the best bid price--$3.15--is Veggie Investments. The market maker with the best ask price--$3.27-is Carnivor Investments. Noah conducts trades in NYSE-listed stocks through his broker, Omnivor and Associates.

Given this scenario, which of the following statements is true?

A. Noah can sell his shares of Lambchops Corporation at the bid price of $3.15 by contacting Veggie Investments directly.

B. Noah can sell his shares of Lambchops Corporation at the ask price of $3.27 by contacting Carnivor Investments directly.

C. Noah can sell his shares of Lambchops Corporation at the bid price of $3.15 by contacting Omnivor and Associates.

D. Noah can sell his shares of Lambchops Corporation at the ask price of $3.27 by contacting Omnivor and Associates.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Noah can sell his shares of Lambchops Corporation for $3.15 from the market maker with the best bid price, Veggie, by contacting his broker, Omnivor and Associates, which will execute the transaction. The bid price is the price at which market makers in the over-the-counter market are willing to buy the stock, and over-the-counter transactions, like NYSE transactions, are executed by brokers.

Question: 17

Which of the following represents a secondary market transaction?

A. An investor buys Treasury bills in the regular Monday auction.

B. An investor buys 300 shares of Electromed (ELMD) at its IPO offer price of $4.00 a share.

C. An investor sells her shares of Sunvalley Solar, Inc. (SSOL), which sells on the OTC Bulletin Board for $0.059 a share.

D. A home buyer obtains a mortgage through his savings and loan.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Explanation: When an investor sells her shares of Sunvalley Solar that is listed on the OTC Bulletin Board, it is a secondary market transaction since shares are being bought and sold between investors. All the other selections involve a new issue of securities, which makes them primary market transactions.

Question: 18

Which of the following statements about primary market transactions is true?

A. A primary market transaction is defined as a transaction that is executed on either the NYSE or NASDAQ. Transactions that take place on ECNs are secondary market transactions.

B. In a primary market transaction, the issuer of the security receives the proceeds from the sale of the security.

C. A primary market transaction refers to the trading of stocks; a secondary market transaction is defined as a transaction that involves bonds.

D. Both A and B are true statements.

Answer: B

Explanation:

In a primary market transaction, the issuer of the security receives the proceeds from the sale of the security. A secondary market transaction involves the purchase and sale of a security between investors, and the seller of the security receives the proceeds from the sale. Both stocks and bonds are initially introduced to the market as primary market securities and are then traded in the secondary market.

Question: 19

A new issue of common stock can be classified in which of the following categories?

I. primary market

II. money market

III. secondary market

IV. capital market

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and IV only

D. II and III only

Answer: C

Explanation:

Only Selections I and IV are correct. A new issue of common stock will be sold in the primary market. It is also a capital market security since it has no maturity, and capital market securities are securities with greater than one year to maturity.

Question: 20

Which of the following securities would be exempt from SEC registration requirements?

I. a 15-year bond issued by the state of Colorado

II. an issue of preferred stock that has an aggregate par value of $5 million

III. an issue of commercial paper that has a 5-month maturity

A. I only

B. III only

C. I and III only

D. I and II only

Answer: C

Explanation:

Only Selections I and III are exempt from SEC registration requirements. The bond issued by Colorado is exempt because bonds issued by a government body are exempt from registration. The issue of commercial paper is exempt because securities with less than 270 days to maturity are exempt from registration.

Question: 21

The investment banker bears the risk if the securities do not sell in a(n):

A. firm commitment underwriting agreement.

B. best efforts agreement.

C. all-or-nothing commitment.

D. None of the above selections are correct. The investment banking firm is never exposed to risk if the securities don’t sell.

Answer: A

Explanation:

The investment banker bears the risk if the securities do not sell in a firm commitment underwriting agreement. In this type of agreement, the investment banker purchases the security from the issuing firm and is fully exposed to any risk associated with the issue.

Question: 22

Which of the following steps in the underwriting process will occur last?

A. The underwriting syndicate is formed.

B. The selling group is organized.

C. The public offering price is set.

D. A red herring prospectus is circulated to the public.

Answer: C

Explanation:

The public offering price is set at the latest possible minute. The underwriters want to have the most current information available when setting the price, especially since they will experience the loss if the securities fail to sell for at least that price.

Question: 23

Which of the following is not a feature associated with an investment in preferred stock?

A. The dividend is typically a fixed amount.

B. If a dividend payment is skipped, it must typically be made up before common shareholders can receive any dividends.

C. Preferred shareholders usually have the right to vote on members of the board of directors, mergers, and shareholder proposals.

D. The preferred stock may be convertible to common stock.

Answer: C

Explanation:

Choice C describes a feature that is not associated with an investment in preferred stock. Preferred shareholders usually have no voting rights whatsoever. Preferred stock usually pays a fixed dividend and is usually cumulative, which means that missed dividends must be made up before common shareholders can receive any dividends. Preferred stock sometimes has a convertible feature, which allows the preferred stockholders to convert their shares to common stock.

Question: 24

Nat Informed places a market order to buy 200 shares of Abercrombie & Fitch (ANF) on Thursday, September 16th.

When will Nat be required to pay for this Transaction?

A. by the end of the trading on September 15th.

B. on the next trading day, September 16th.

C. on Tuesday, September 21st.

D. on Friday, September 17th.

Answer: C

Explanation:

If Nat places an order to purchase 200 shares of Abercrombie & Fitch on Thursday, September 16th, payment will be due on Tuesday, September 21st. The settlement date for stock transactions is T + 3, which means the third business day after the trade. Saturday is not a business day.

Question: 25

Connie Serve placed an order to purchase five, $1,000 Treasury bonds in the secondary market on Tuesday, October 12th.

Connie will be required to pay for this purchase on which day?

A. Tuesday, October 12th.

B. Wednesday, October 13th.

C. Thursday, October 14th.

D. Friday, October 15th.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Connie will be required to pay for this purchase on Wednesday, October 13th. The settlement date for Treasury securities and exchange-listed options is one business day after the trade date, or T + 1.

Question: 1

What do drives 0_0_0 to 0_0_4 in a CX4 contain?

A. FLARE and vault

B. Linux OS and metadata

C. DART and vault

D. Enginuity and metadata

Answer: A

Question: 2

What is a characteristic of disk-drive Spin Down?

A. Spin Down is only available on CX4.

B. Drives 0-4 are eligible for Spin Down.

C. Drive Spin Down is available for thin LUNs.

D. Drive Spin Down is available for all drives.

Answer: A

Question: 3

What is the maximum number of disk drives that can be configured in a pool on a CX4-480?

A. 475

B. 16

C. 480

D. 32

Answer: A

Question: 4

A customer currently has four CLARiiON arrays installed. They would like you to implement ESRS.

What monitoring environment is a prerequisite for installing ESRS?

A. Centralized Monitoring

B. Distributed Monitoring

C. Storage Processor Email Monitoring

D. Host Based SNMP Monitoring

Answer: A

Question: 5

A customer would like to configure NTP using Unisphere. What is the minimum polling time

allowed for NTP?

A. 30 minutes

B. 60 minutes

C. 15 minutes

D. 10 minutes

Answer: A

Question: 6

What communication protocol does Unisphere use?

A. SSL

B. SFTP

C. UDP

D. SSH

Answer: A

Question: 7

A customer has a CX4 series CLARiiON and is experiencing a problem with SP

A. Upon arrival

you notice that the SPA Fault LED is amber and flashing at a rate of four times a second.

What is the boot state of SPA?

A. POST Starting OS

B. OS Booted

C. Executing BIOS

D. FLARE Driver Complete

Answer: A

Question: 8

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the correct order of the management module components?

A. A-GbE Service LAN; B-GbE Management LAN; C-Service Port COM1; D-SPS Port COM2; ENMI

Button

B. A-GbE Management LAN; B-GbE Service LAN; C-Service Port COM1; D-SPS Port COM2; ENMI

Button

C. A-SPS Port COM2; B-NMI Button; C-Service Port COM1; D-GbE Service LAN; E-GbE

Management LAN

D. A-GbE Service LAN; B-GbE Management LAN; C-SPS Port COM2; D-Service Port COM1; EEMC

NMI Button

Answer: A

Question: 9

Which statement accurately describes DAE3P enclosures?

A. Supported on CX3 and CX4 series arrays

B. Support the 2 Gb/s LCC card

C. Contain 14 disk drives

D. Support FC, ATA, Flash drives, and SATA-II drives

Answer: A

Question: 10

How many front-end ports are required to provide failover between SPs for eight direct-attached

hosts on a CX4?

A. 16

B. 8

C. 4

D. 2

Answer: A

Question: 11

A customer has installed a new CX4 and is using ALUA SCSI communications with a Windows

2008 server and PowerPath.

The server is using two LUNs on the array and they are both owned by SP

A. Which statement

describes how I/O is handled when a host has two paths to each SP, and there are no faults in this

environment?

A. I/O will flow to the owning SP over the optimal paths.

B. I/O will flow to each SP and load balance all paths.

C. I/O will flow on only one path to each SP even if multiple paths are defined.

D. I/O flows to the owning SP and then will use the CMI bus for additional I/O.

Answer: A

Question: 12

What connectivity rules should be applied when configuring storage processor management ports

on a CX4?

A. Both ports must be on the same subnet.

B. Both ports must be connected via CAT 5 cabling.

C. Both ports must be connected via 10/100 Ethernet.

D. Both ports must be directly connected to the host.

Answer: A

Question: 13

Refer to the exhibit.

Which port has a fixed IP and subnet mask?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

Answer: A

Question: 14

Refer to the exhibit.

Which port is configured during array initialization?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

Answer: B

Question: 15

A customer has requested onsite assistance because they are currently unable to communicate

with SP

A. You arrive onsite and connect to the GbE Service LAN. What IP address do you use to

connect to SPA?

A. 128.221.1.250

B. 192.168.1.250

C. 128.221.1.251

D. 192.168.1.251

Answer: A

Question: 16

What is the hard-coded Ethernet IP address of the SPB service port on a CX4?

A. 128.221.1.251

B. 128.122.2.251

C. 128.221.1.250

D. 128.122.2.250

Answer: A

Question: 17

What software is used to assign IP addresses when installing a new CLARiiON?

A. Unisphere Initialization Utility

B. Unisphere Server Utility

C. Unisphere Service Manager

D. Unisphere Client

Answer: A

Question: 18

What is used to identify the array when first starting the Unisphere Initialization Utility?

A. Serial number of the array

B. WWN seed of the SPE

C. IP address of the service port

D. Serial number of the management module

Answer: A

Question: 19

You are implementing Unisphere security on a CX4 CLARiiON with FLARE 30. The customer has

requested that all certificates be validated when naviseccli is used.

What level of certificate validation does EMC recommend be set for naviseccli?

A. Medium

B. High

C. Low

D. Ignore

Answer: A

Question: 20

What does a security scope of 1 represent when used with naviseccli?

A. Local

B. Replication

C. Global

D. LDAP

Answer: A

Question: 1

An organization plans to deploy a spine/leaf network topology to support a cloud design. Leaf

switches will use layer-3 protocols to communicate with the spine switches. Hosts will each

connect to two leaf switches using layer-2 protocols.

Which technology must be enabled between the host and leaf switches to provide the maximum

throughput for a single data stream?

Generic Network Virtualization Encapsulation

Spanning Tree Protocol

Equal-Cost Multi-Path Routing

Multi-Chassis Aggregation

Answer: A

Explanation:

Generic Network Virtualization Encapsulation (Geneve) is the peacemaking protocol drafted to

unify VXLAN, NVGRE, and whatever other tunneling protocols emerge for network virtualization.

Geneve doesn’t exactly replace VXLAN and other protocols. Rather, it provides a common

superset among them, so that outside software can provide hooks to Geneve rather than having to

accommodate multiple encapsulation standards.

Note: NVGRE (Network Virtualization using Generic Routing Encapsulation) is a network

virtualization technology that attempts to alleviate the scalability problems associated with large

cloud computing deployments. It uses Generic Routing Encapsulation (GRE) to tunnel layer 2

packets over layer 3 networks. Its principal backer is Microsoft.

References:

https://www.sdxcentral.com/articles/news/intel-supports-geneve-unify-vxlan-nvgre/2014/09/

Question: 2

An organization wants to deploy a block storage in the cloud using a storage array that is

accessible through the iSCSI protocol. The hosts support iSCSI.

Why would network segmentation be included in the design to support this requirement?

Secure all traffic between the storage array and the hosts

Enable CHAP between the array and hosts

iSCSI traffic is not supported on networks with other types of traffic

Enable LUN masking capabilities of the array

Answer: D

Explanation:

LUN masking is a further constraint added to LUN zoning to ensure that only devices authorized to

access a specific server can access the corresponding port.

A logical unit number (LUN) is a unique identifier that designates individual hard disk devices or

grouped devices for address by a protocol associated with a SCSI, iSCSI, Fibre Channel (FC) or

similar interface. LUNs are central to the management of block storage arrays shared over a

storage area network (SAN).

References:

http://searchvirtualstorage.techtarget.com/definition/LUN-masking

Question: 3

An organization wants to provide backup services in the cloud. They have no backup infrastructure

in place. The organization has concerns about losing data if a site disaster occurs. They want to

maintain control of backup data placement because of data privacy laws. Finally, they want to

maintain at least one month’s worth of backups onsite.

Which backup solution will meet these requirements?

Local backup

Remote backups

Local backup with replication

Local backups with cloud gateway

Answer: D

Explanation:

Cloud gateway allows EMC customers to move on-premise data from EMC arrays to public cloud

storage providers. Clod gateway facilitate data migration from on-premises to a public cloud

storage service to create a true hybrid cloud storage environment.

Cloud gateways such as Riverbed’s SteelStore (formally known as Whitewater) can act as a local

backup target for funneling data to a storage cloud for offsite storage.

References:

http://blogs.forrester.com/henry_baltazar/14-07-09-

gateways_will_accelerate_data_migration_to_the_cloud

Question: 4

An organization has internal applications that require block, file, and object storage. They

anticipate the need for multi-PB storage within the next 18 months. In addition, they would prefer

to use commodity hardware as well as open source technologies.

Which solution should be recommended?

Cinder

Hadoop

Swift

Ceph

Answer: C

Explanation:

OpenStack Swift Object Storage on EMC Isilon

EMC Isilon with OneFS 7.2 now supports OpenStack Swift API. Isilon is simple to manage, highly

scalable (up to 30PB+ in a single namespace) and highly efficient (80%+ storage utilization) NAS

References:

http://samuraiincloud.com/2014/11/26/openstack-swift-object-storage-on-emc-isilon/

Question: 5

In a cloud design, an architect has defined a separate trust zone for host management. The hosts

will be running open source hypervisors.

What should be included in the design deliverables to support this separate trust zone?

Isolated management network and a common super-user account

Separate PKI and encrypted CMI portal access

Separate authentication source and a preferred zone set

Isolated management network and a separate authentication source

Answer: D

Question: 6

Which aspect of the project definition does the cloud design scope provide?

Broad directions for the project

Boundaries of what the project should and should not include

Sales figures that must be met when designing the project

Specific features or functions that must be included in the project

Answer: D

Question: 7

A cloud architect is designing a hybrid cloud for an organization. A requirement for this

environment is that the private cloud user credential be trusted by both cloud provisioning APIs.

Which type of authentication will meet this requirement?

Federated authentication

Asymmetric encryption

Symmetric encryption

Shared-key authentication

Answer: A

Explanation:

A federated identity in information technology is the means of linking a person's electronic identity

and attributes, stored across multiple distinct identity management systems.

References:

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Federated_identity

Question: 1

Which statement defines retention period?

A. Amount of time available for restoring a particular version of a backup dataset

B. Amount of time available for overwriting a volume containing backups

C. Period of time in which a backup must be restored

D. Amount of time allocated for full system recovery

Answer: A

Question: 2

Which type of backup only copies the files that have changed since the last full backup?

A. Cumulative

B. Full

C. Incremental

D. Synthetic full

Answer: A

Question: 3

Which type of backup should be used to create a backup copy offline without disrupting I/O

operations on a production volume?

A. Cumulative backup

B. Incremental backup

C. Full backup

D. Synthetic full backup

Answer: D

Question: 4

What is the interval of time between the creation and expiration of the backup called?

A. Retention period

B. Recovery point objective (RPO)

C. Recovery time objective (RTO)

D. Backup window

Answer: A

Question: 5

What is the primary reason for having disaster recovery backups?

A. To restore data from an alternate site due to data loss at a primary site

B. To restore data when data loss or logical corruptions occur during routine processing

C. To restore data that was archived for regulatory compliance

D. To restore data when data loss occurs due to minor hardware component failures

Answer: A

Question: 6

What is recovery point objective?

A. Maximum allowable time to fully recover an application

B. Actual time that it takes to recover all data

C. Amount of data loss that is acceptable by the business

D. Length of time that backups are kept for recovery purposes

Answer: C

Question: 7

A customer has a requirement to restore operations within two hours after a disaster.

What is this time period called?

A. Recovery time objective (RTO)

B. Retention period

C. Recovery point objective (RPO)

D. Backup window

Answer: A

Question: 8

A full backup of a file system is performed once a week on Saturday and cumulative backups are

performed on all other days. Backups start at 20:00 with a two-hour window. Data on the file

system changes every day.

How many backups are required to perform a full system restore as of Friday morning?

A. 2

B. 6

C. 1

D. 7

Answer: A

Question: 9

A customer is moving data from a backup disk to tape, which will later will be stored offsite.

What is this process called?

A. Cloning

B. Staging

C. Aging

D. Mirroring

Answer: B

Question: 10

You are planning the staging policy for disk-to-offsite tape backup medi

a. In addition to available

disk space, which factor is most significant when determining how long to keep the backup data on

disk?

A. Length of time when most restore requests are expected to occur

B. Location of offsite storage

C. Cost of shipping and storing tapes

D. Tape capacity

Answer: A

Question: 11

A business has a recovery point objective (RPO) of nine hours. What does this RPO mean in the

event of a disaster?

A. No more than nine hours of production data can be lost

B. Restore from backup must occur within nine hours

C. Production must be resumed within nine hours

D. A backup copy of the production data must be obtained within nine hours

Answer: A

Question: 12

What is the process of moving data from one storage medium to another?

A. Cloning

B. Replication

C. Staging

D. Twinning

Answer: C

Question: 13

Which software component of a backup application sends media metadata to the backup server?

A. Storage node

B. Client

C. NetWorker Management Console

D. Application server

Answer: A

Question: 14

What is the role of the storage node in a client/server backup architecture?

A. Writes data to a backup device

B. Gathers data to be backed up

C. Manages the backup operation

D. Writes metadata to the backup catalog

Answer: A

Question: 15

What is a benefit of deploying a separate storage node in the backup environment?

A. Reduced number of backups

B. Increased media utilization

C. Improved security and access control

D. Consolidate backup servers

Answer: D

Question: 16

What terminology is used to describe grouping several physical drives into one logical drive?

A. Concatenation

B. Partitioning

C. Formatting

D. Grouping

Answer: A

Question: 17

What are the components of a Logical Volume Manager (LVM)?

A. Physical volumes, volume groups, logical volumes

B. Physical groups, volume groups, logical volumes

C. Physical groups, volume groups, logical groups

D. Physical blocks, volume groups, logical groups

Answer: A

Question: 18

What is an example of a PCI connection?

A. Parallel interface between a disk and the controller card

B. Interconnection between a CPU and network card

C. Serial connection between a disk and the controller card

D. Interconnection between a tape drive and a computer

Answer: B

Question: 19

Which disk connectivity option supports the highest data transfer rate?

A. SATA

B. SCSI

C. IDE

D. ATA

Answer: A

Question: 20

What is the fault tolerance of a RAID 5 array, where n is the number of disks in the array?

A. 1

B. n-1

C. 2

D. n-2

Answer: A

Question: 1

You are attempting to configure BGP peering to a new service provider. The BGP peering state is stuck in the active state.

What are two reasons for this happening? (Choose two)

A. the local autonomous system number is not configure

B. the origin ID is not configure

C. The peer IP address is incorrect

D. The peer autonomous number is incorrect.

Answer: C

Question: 2

The network administrator wants the ports on an EX series switch to allow both tagged and untagged frames to be followed. Tagged FRAMES should be associated with their tagged VLAN. While untagged frames should be associated with a preconfigured VLAN IN THIS scenario which statement is true?

A. The INTERFACE PORT MODE should be configured as mixed mode two allow both trunk and access

port modes, untagged frames will belong to the default VLAN configured on that port.

B. An Interface can be configured as an access port or a TRUNK Port ,but it cannot accept both tagged and untagged frames.

C. The interface port mode should be configured as an access port with a VLAN id frames that enter the port wid a VLAN tag already assigned will override the access port VLAN id.

D. The interface port mode should be configured as a trunk port, untagged frames will belong to the native vlan id configured on that post.

Answer: D

Question: 3

When servicing queues on an EX series switch, which two statements are true? (Choose two)

A. By default, the class-of-service bits on a packet do not change on egress, regardless of which queue services the packet

B. By default, the four primary queues of best effort, assured forwarding expedited forwarding and network control have resources assigned to them

C. By default, only the best effort and network-control queues have resources assigned to them

D. WHEN TRAFFIC is assigned to user defined queues the best effort queue resources are automatically divided evenly among all user's configured queues to ensure all traffic get serviced.

Answer: A, C

Question: 4

Which two statements about this scenario are correct? (choose two)

A. the device is aware of all sources for the group

B. the device is receiving the multicast stream using the shortest path free

C. the forwarding path to the multicast source is through the RP

D. the source of the group is unknown

Answer: C, D

Question: 5

You installed redundant power supplies of different capacities into your EX switch. In this scenario, which statement is true?

A. The POE power budget is based on the number of ports on the switch

B. The POE power budget is based on the combined wattage of both power supplies

C. The POE power budget is based on the wattage of the lower capacity power supply

D. The POE power budget is based on the wattage of the higher capacity power supply.

Answer: C

Question: 6

Which three statements are correct about source specific multicast (SSM) on the junos OS? (Choose three)

A. SSM requires the use of an RP

B. IT HAS AN DEDICATED address block

C. SSM does not require the use of an RP

D. SSM must use the232/8 address range

E. IGMPv2 and IGMPv3 can be used with SSM.

Answer: B, C, E

Question: 7

What is the purpose of realms in OSPFv3?

A. They pass IPv6 routes through IPv4

B. They pass IPv6 routes through VPNs

C. They pass IPv4 routes through IPv6

D. They pass VPN through IPv6

Answer: C

Question: 8

Your layer two network contains 500 unique VLAN IDS .you are asked to ensure that your VLANS Are load balanced between two root bridges ,but you are only allowed to have two spanning tree instances within your network. Which spanning tree protocol should you use in the scenario?

A. VSTP

B. RSTP

C. MSTP

D. STP

Answer: C

Question: 9

A packet enters the router and is subject to ingress's processing. In which order is the packet processed?

A. Policer >BA classifier>multifield classifier>forwarding policy

B. multifield classifier>BA classifier>policer>forwarding policy

C. BA classifier>multifieldclaasssifier>policer>forwarding policy

D. forwarding policy> BA classifier>multifield classifier>policer

Answer: C

Question: 10

The network is configured with IPv4 and IPv6 addressing. The network administrator does not want the overhead of managing OSPFv2 and 0SPFv3 for route advertisement, Which statement is true in this scenario?

A. OSPFv2 can advertise IPv6 routes by using opaque LSAs

B. OSPFv3 can advertise IPv4 routes by using route redistribution policies

C. OSPFv2 and OSPFv3 must run on the network to advertise IPv6 and IPv4 routes

D. 0SPFv3 can advertise IPv4 routes by configuring protocol realms

Answer: D

Question: 11

You manage your company's enterprise network using EX series switches. Your company wants to use Q in Q tunneling to correct remote customer sites together, which statement is correct about the scenario?

A. you must enable L2PT to tunnel layer 2 protocol traffic

B. the outside layer 2 frame is popped by the penultimate switch

C. customer traffic is tunneled through the network using the C-VLAN-ID

D. the default Ethernet type value is 0x9100

Answer: A

Question: 12

You want to deploy MSTP with multiple regions. Each region should have a unique root bridge to accommodate a set of VLANs. Which three configuration elements must watch on switches participating in this deployment scenario? (Choose three)

A. MSTI toVLAN mapping

B. revision level

C. CST BPDU parameters

D. configuration name

E. bridge priority

Answer: A, B, D

Question: 1

Which two services define cloud networks? (Choose two.)

A. Infrastructure as a Service

B. Platform as a Service

C. Security as a Service

D. Compute as a Service

E. Tenancy as a Service

Answer: A,B

Question: 2

In which two situations should you use out-of-band management? (Choose two.)

A. when a network device fails to forward packets

B. when you require ROMMON access

C. when management applications need concurrent access to the device

D. when you require administrator access from multiple locations

E. when the control plane fails to respond

Answer: A,B

Question: 3

In which three ways does the TACACS protocol differ from RADIUS? (Choose three.)

A. TACACS uses TCP to communicate with the NAS.

B. TACACS can encrypt the entire packet that is sent to the NAS.

C. TACACS supports per-command authorization.

D. TACACS authenticates and authorizes simultaneously, causing fewer packets to be transmitted.

E. TACACS uses UDP to communicate with the NAS.

F. TACACS encrypts only the password field in an authentication packet.

Answer: A,B,C

Question: 4

According to Cisco best practices, which three protocols should the default ACL allow on an access port to enable wired BYOD devices to supply valid credentials and connect to the network? (Choose three.)

A. BOOTP

B. TFTP

C. DNS

D. MAB

E. HTTP

F. 802.1x

Answer: A,B,C

Question: 5

Which two next-generation encryption algorithms does Cisco recommend? (Choose two.)

A. AES

B. 3DES

C. DES

D. MD5

E. DH-1024

F. SHA-384

Answer: A,F

Question: 6

Which three ESP fields can be encrypted during transmission? (Choose three.)

A. Security Parameter Index

B. Sequence Number

C. MAC Address

D. Padding

E. Pad Length

F. Next Header

Answer: D,E,F

Question: 7

What are two default Cisco IOS privilege levels? (Choose two.)

A. 0

B. 1

C. 5

D. 7

E. 10

F. 15

Answer: B,F

Question: 8

Which two authentication types does OSPF support? (Choose two.)

A. plaintext

B. MD5

C. HMAC

D. AES 256

E. SHA-1

F. DES

Answer: A,B

Question: 9

Which two features do CoPP and CPPr use to protect the control plane? (Choose two.)

A. QoS

B. traffic classification

C. access lists

D. policy maps

E. class maps

F. Cisco Express Forwarding

Answer: A,B

Question: 10

Which two statements about stateless firewalls are true? (Choose two.)

A. They compare the 5-tuple of each incoming packet against configurable rules.

B. They cannot track connections.

C. They are designed to work most efficiently with stateless protocols such as HTTP or HTTPS.

D. Cisco IOS cannot implement them because the platform is stateful by nature.

E. The Cisco ASA is implicitly stateless because it blocks all traffic by default.

Answer: A,B

Question: 11

Which three statements about host-based IPS are true? (Choose three.)

A. It can view encrypted files.

B. It can have more restrictive policies than network-based IPS.

C. It can generate alerts based on behavior at the desktop level.

D. It can be deployed at the perimeter.

E. It uses signature-based policies.

F. It works with deployed firewalls.

Answer: A,B,C

Question: 12

What three actions are limitations when running IPS in promiscuous mode? (Choose three.)

A. deny attacker

B. deny packet

C. modify packet

D. request block connection

E. request block host

F. reset TCP connection

Answer: A,B,C

Question: 13

When an IPS detects an attack, which action can the IPS take to prevent the attack from spreading?

A. Deny the connection inline.

B. Perform a Layer 6 reset.

C. Deploy an antimalware system.

D. Enable bypass mode.

Answer: A

Question: 14

What is an advantage of implementing a Trusted Platform Module for disk encryption?

A. It provides hardware authentication.

B. It allows the hard disk to be transferred to another device without requiring re-encryption.dis

C. It supports a more complex encryption algorithm than other disk-encryption technologies.

D. It can protect against single points of failure.

Answer: A

Question: 15

What is the purpose of the Integrity component of the CIA triad?

A. to ensure that only authorized parties can modify data

B. to determine whether data is relevant

C. to create a process for accessing data

D. to ensure that only authorized parties can view data

Answer: A

Question: 16

In a security context, which action can you take to address compliance?

A. Implement rules to prevent a vulnerability.

B. Correct or counteract a vulnerability.

C. Reduce the severity of a vulnerability.

D. Follow directions from the security appliance manufacturer to remediate a vulnerability.

Answer: A

Question: 17

Which type of secure connectivity does an extranet provide?

A. other company networks to your company network

B. remote branch offices to your company network

C. your company network to the Internet

D. new networks to your company network

Answer: A

Question: 18

Which tool can an attacker use to attempt a DDoS attack?

A. botnet

B. Trojan horse

C. virus

D. adware

Answer: A

Question: 19

What type of security support is provided by the Open Web Application Security Project?

A. Education about common Web site vulnerabilities.

B. A Web site security framework.

C. A security discussion forum for Web site developers.

D. Scoring of common vulnerabilities and exposures.

Answer: A

Question: 20

What type of attack was the Stuxnet virus?

A. cyber warfare

B. hacktivism

C. botnet

D. social engineering

Answer: A

Question: 1

Which two Cisco Nexus 1000V Series Switch features exceed the functionality of the VWware vNetwork Distributed Switch? (Choose two )

A. access control lists

B. QoS marking

C. Network vMotion

D. port state migration

E. DV Port Groups

Answer: AB

Question: 2

When using a Cisco UCS Director, a typical workflow consists of which two terms? (Choose Two )

A. Resource Manager

B. Workflow Designer

C. Scheduler

D. Activity Planner

E. Predefined Tasks

Answer: BE

Question: 3

Which model is a deployment model in cloud computing?

A. automate cloud

B. layered cloud

C. private cloud

D. collapsed cloud

Answer: C

Question: 4

Which statement about a bridge domain is true?

A. A bridge domain must be liked to one internal network and one external network

B. A bridge domain must be linked to a physical domain

C. A bridge domain typically has at least one subnet that Is associated with it

D. A bridge domain must have at least one external network that is associated with it

Answer: C

Question: 5

Which two options are primary elements of a tenant? (Choose two )

A. firewall rules

B. contracts

C. EPG

D. access policies

E. switch domains

Answer: BC

Question: 6

Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer allocates 12 physical ports to a new VDC. Which command is used to verify VDC port allocation on a Cisco Nexus switch?

A. show vdc port-membership

B. show vdc port-allocation

C. show vdc allocation

D. show vdc membership

Answer: D

Question: 7

Which two protocols are encapsulated in FCoE? (Choose two.)

A. iSCSI

B. Fibre Channel

C. CIFS

D. DNSF

E. SCSI

Answer: BE

Question: 8

What are two advantages to running Fabric Path in the data center over using Spanning Tree? (Choose two.)

A. provides multi chassis Ether Channel capabilities

B. allows every switch to send BPDUs to each other to ensure the L2 topology is synchronized

C. has L2 multipath forwarding capacities

D. uses B02 1 q trunks to ensure VLANs are propagated through the topology

E. uses TTL field to provide loop mitigation

Answer: CE

Question: 9

Which privilege is assigned by default to the UCS Manager Storage Administrator user role?

A. service-storage-security-config

B. service-admin-config

C. service-admin

D. service-profile-storage

Answer: D

Question: 10

Which two standards enable Ethernet to support FCoE? (Choose two.)

A. Priority Flow Control

B. Virtual1 Extensible LAN

C. Enhanced Transmission Selection

D. Address Resolution Protocol

E. virtual port channel and virtual device context

Answer: AC

Question: 1

Exadata Database Machine offers an Intelligent Platform Management Interface for the various components in the Exadata product. Which option is true?

A. IPMI can be used to remotely start and stop servers.

B. IPMI can be used to remotely log in to the operating system.

C. IPMI commands can be executed by using SNMP traps.

D. IPMI settings can be secured by backing up the Oracle Linux installation on the storage system.

Answer: A

Explanation:

IPMI – short for Intelligent Platform Management Interface - is an interface standard that allows remote management of a server from another using standardized interface. The servers in the Exadata Database Machine follow that. It’s not an Exadata command but rather a general Linux one.

To power on a cell or database server, issue this from another server:

# ipmitool -H prolcel01-ilom -U root chassis power on

To stop a server, use the shutdown command. To stop immediately and keep it down, i.e. not reboot, execute:

# shutdown -h -y now

Question: 2

Which is the best location to point your customer to, for finding the latest Exadata patches?

A. owner's guide

B. Patch database in MyOracle Support

C. MyOracle Support note 888828.1

D. MyOracle Support for database patches, ULN for OS patches, and Sun Support for Server and InfiniBand patches.

Answer: C

Question: 3

A customer has three databases named CC. FIN, and DW. The CC database is for their CallCenter. Even a slight decrease in the response time of the database would mean more people "on hold" in their data center. The orders received through the CallCenter are stored in the Finance (FIN) database. Both databases, CC and FIN, serve as sources for the Data Warehouse (DW) database. All databases use the same Automatic Storage Management (ASM) diskgroup and therefore, the same physical disks on Exadata storage. The customer wants to dynamically control the resources that are available for the CallCenter database because this has direct impact on their operations?

Which option should be implemented?

A. DBRM on the CC database

B. DBRM on all the databases

C. IORM, because DBRM cannot be changed for an existing session

D. IORM and DBRM

Answer: B

Question: 4

Consider the following software changes that are performed manually on a Linux server:

1. Changes for Linux kernel firewall configuration

2. Changes for custom performance monitoring tools

3. Changes for security scan tools

4. Changes for Linux system performance optimization

Which of the software changes listed are permitted on Exadata Storage Servers?

A. 1, 2, 3, and 4

B. only 3 '

C. none

D. only 2

E. only 1 and 2

F. only 2 and 3

Answer: C

Explanation:

1: The Storage Server Patch is responsible for keeping our cell nodes always up-to-date, fixing possible problems, and this patch includes different component patches, like kernel patches, firmware, operation system, etc… for the Storage Server.

Incorrect:

3,4: security scan tools changes and Linux system performance optimization changes would be on the database server.

Question: 5

Which two statements are true about enabling write-back flash cache?

A. When enabling write-back flash cache in a non rolling manner, it is important to ensure that asmdeactivatonoutcome is set to YES and asmModestatus is set to ONLINE for all grid disks.

B. Before using write-back flash cache, you need to verify the minimum required versions.

C. Before write back-flash cache is enabled, you need to drop the Flash Cache first.

D. The setting flashCacheMode should be set to writeback by updating cellinit.ora and restarting cellsrv.

E. When enabling write-back flash cache in a rolling manner, dcli should be used to inactivate the grid disks on all cells first.

Answer: B, C

Explanation:

B: Exadata storage version 11.2.3.2.1 is the minimum version required to use this write back flash cache option.

C: Steps for Enabling Write back flash cache:

First of all, you don’t need the stop CRS or database (This is ROLLING method) ,you can do it cell by cell.

* drop flashcache

* Be sure asmdeactivationoutcome is YES is before disabling grid disk

Question: 6

Consider the following setup:

User A1 belongs to resource group High on Database A.

User B2 belongs to resource group Low on Database B.

User C3 is a user on Database C without any DBRM setup.

DBRM setup:

Database A: Resource group High gets 80% and Low gets 20%.

Database B: Resource group High gets 60% and Low gets 40%.

IORM setup:

Database A: Share=20, limit=5

Database B: Share=30, limit=10

Database C: 5 shares

Total number of shares in the IORM setup = 100

What percent of I/O will each database user theoretically be using when the Exadata storage unit I/O throughout is used 100% and no other databases but A, B, and C are running?

A. Al = 36%, B2=18%, and C3=9%

B. Al = 33%, B2=33%, and C3=33%

C. AI = 10%, B2=5%, and C3=20%

D. Al = 8%, B2=12%, and C3=5%

E. Al = 5%, B2=10%, and C3=85%

Answer: E

Explanation:

IORM setup limits Database A to 5%, and Database B is limited to 10%, while Database C has not IORM limit.

Note that the resource groups are for CPU allocation.

Question: 7

Consider this CellCLI command:

CellCLI> CREATE GRIDDISK ALL HARDDISK PREFIX=data, size=423G;

Which two statements describe what happens when you execute this command?

A. It creates one 423 GB grid disk on the first available cell hard disk.

B. It creates one 423 GB grid disk on each available cell hard disk.

C. It creates grid disks on the outermost 423 GB that is available on each hard disk.

D. It creates grid disks on the innermost 423 GB that is available on each hard disk.

E. It creates an Exadata Smart Flash Cache on all flash drives.

Answer: B, C

Explanation:

* Example:

CellCLI> create griddisk all harddisk prefix=temp_dg, size=570G

This command will create 12 Griddisks, each of 570G in size from the outer (fastest) sectors of the underlying Harddisks. It fills up the first 2 Celldisks entirely, because they have just 570G space free – the rest is already consumed by the OS partition.

Question: 8

You get a Host Unreachable error when you attempt to connect to a server through a network terminal command line. What are two other ways in which you can connect?

A. Use the ILOM Web GUI.

B. Use the dcli command at the root prompt on a database node.

C. Attach a terminal device to the back panel of the server with a serial cable.

D. Connect by using SQL *Plus.

E. Log in as root on the database node using the Net1 IP address.

Answer: AC

Explanation:

In addition to gaining shell access via SSH to manage your Exadata servers, you can also access them from the Integrated Lights Out Management (ILOM) console or KVM console.

and should typically not require modifications unless you have changed network information inside your database machine.

Note: A KVM switch (with KVM being an abbreviation for "keyboard, video and mouse") is a hardware device that allows a user to control multiple computers from one or more[1] keyboard, video monitor and mouse. Although multiple computers are connected to the KVM, typically a smaller number of computers can be controlled at any given time

Question: 9

Identify three best practices for applying asmdeactivationoutcome es on Exadata Database Servers and Exadata Storage Servers?

A. Backing up database servers and storage cells is not recommended before performing planned maintenance.

B. Database server updates can be rolled back using the the “yum downgrade" procedure.

C. Bundle patches do not require testing before being installed on a production system.

D. It is recommended that Exadata systems with Data Guard configured use the "Standby First" patching approach.

E. Patching should never be interrupted due to a connection drop. It is therefore recommended that you use VNC or the screen utility.

F. Before patching cells in a rolling manner, you must check asmdeactivationoutcome amModestatus and make sure that cells on all disks are online and that disks can be deactivated.

Answer: D, E, F

Question: 10

The mpstat output from OS Watcher shows a database node as being 90% idle on an average. What would you do to get a full picture of CPU utilization on the entire Exadata RAC cluster?

A. Average the mpstat id1 output from all the nodes.

B. Ask application users if they have noticed a slowdown in screen response.

C. Look for an increase in batch job servicing times.

D. A & B above

Answer: A

Question: 1

While creating a Contract Purchase Agreement, a buyer tries to add a Contract Template to it, but the List of Values (VOL) is empty.

Identify three applicable reasons for this issue.

A. The document type associated with the Contract Template is ‘Blanket Purchase Agreement’.

B. The Contract Template is not ‘Approved’.

C. The document typeassociated with the Contract Template is ‘Purchase Order’.

D. The Contract Template is in ‘Approved’ status.

E. The document type associated with the Contract Template is ‘Contract Purchase Agreement’.

Answer: C,D,E

Question: 2

Your customer wants toconfigure three business units (BUs) as follows:

Identify the correct configuration.

A. The US Header BU needs to be configured as a Payables Payment Service Provider.

B. The US West BU needs to be configuredas a Customer Payments Service Provider.

C. The US East BU and US West BU need to be configured as Payables Payment Service Provider.

D. The US East BU needs to be configured as a Payables Payment Service Provider.

Answer: D

Question: 3

Five requisition lines of a single requisition document are available to process on to purchase order. But the buyer returned one requisition line to the requester for quantity modification.

What will be the effect of this action on the remaining four requisition lines?

A. They will be put on hold until the requester resubmits the returned line with the correct quantity.

B. They will also get returned to the requester.

C. They will be in the “withdrawn” status.

D. They will be available to process on to purchaseorder.

E. They will get canceled.

Answer: A

Explanation:

How can I reject individual items on a multi-item requisition?

You cannot selectively approve or reject individual items. You can edit the requisition to add or delete items, modify requisition quantity, and then approve the requisition. If the approver needs to reject specific lines on the requisition, the approver should reject the entire requisition. The approver can include comments on the worklist task to highlight the rejection reason. The preparer then needs to update the requisition and resubmit it for approval.

References:https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E56614_01/procurementop_gs/OAPRC/F1007478AN174A5.htm

Question: 4

Identify two profile options that are required to configure Punchout Catalogs in Self Service Procurement.

A. PO_DOC_BUILDER_DEFAULT_DOC_TYPE

B. PO_DEFAULT_PRC_BU

C. POR_DISPLAY_EMBEDDED_ANALYTICS

D. POR_PROXY_SERVER_NAME

E. POR_PROXY_SERVER_PORT

Answer: D,E

Explanation:

POR_PROXY_SERVER_NAME and POR_PROXY_SERVER_PORT profile needs to be configured if Oracle is connecting to external or transparent punchout.

Question: 5

During an implementation, the super user is requesting you to explain how to set up “risks” to be used in the Procurement Contracts by all users. You are in the middle of the year and currently there are few “risks” that are already defined and the organization is planning to introduce new “risks” from New Year’s Day.

Identify the two steps the user should follow to fulfill this requirement.

A. Wait until year end, inactivate the old risks data on year end, and create and activate new risks from the same day.

B. Provide an end date as year end for the old risk data,create new risks now, and provide New year’s Day as start date.

C. Create new risks now, enable those at year end, and disable the old data on year end.

D. The user needs to delete old risks and create new risks around the year end.

Answer: A,B

Question: 6

You have defined an attribute named ‘Years of Experience’ in your negotiation. You have set up scores for acceptable value ranges, and would like to rate responses based on this score. On getting the responses from the participating suppliers, you observe that for a few suppliers, the score was not calculated. Identify the reason for this issue.

A. The Negotiation type is RFI (Request for Information); therefore, scoring is optional.

B. The attribute ‘Years of Experience’ was not marked as Required, so the supplier did not provide any value.

C. Sourcing does not support attribute definition.

D. You already have a few suppliers defined in the system; therefore, the scoring did not take place.

Answer: B

Explanation:

Responses to Requirements can be scored according to the desirability of the response. You can define the Requirement such that the system automatically scores the response (in which case you must specify the allowable values (or ranges of values) for that requirement and each one's score. Or evaluators can view the response and enter a score manually.

References: https://docs.oracle.com/cd/E26401_01/doc.122/e48968/T435340T443517.htm

Question: 7

Name the Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence (OTBI) KPI that indicates the count of approved requisitions where at least one of the requisition lines is assigned to the new buyer who has logged in and that requisition line is not implemented into an order, bucketed by the number of days elapsed since the requisition was approved.

A. Requisition Lines Cycle Time

B. Requisition Aging Count

C. Requisition Line Aging Count

D. Requisition Lines Volume Count

E. Requisition Lines in Process Count

Answer: E

Question: 8

During the implementation, your customer wants to understand the key features of the two-stage Request For Quotation (RFQ) available in Oracle Sourcing Cloud.

Identify three features of the two-stage RFQ.

A. Technical and Commercial Evaluation

B. Open Auctions

C. Two stage Evaluation

D. Response Visibility Blind

E. Response Visibility Open

F. Response Visibility is always Sealed

Answer: A,C,F

Explanation:

The two-stage RFQ process involves the submission by the suppliers of a technical quote and a commercial quote. The technical quotes are opened and evaluated first to determine a list ofqualified suppliers, and only then are the commercial quotes of the qualified suppliers opened and evaluated.

TWO STAGE RFQ

Ensure impartial judgment of supplier responses in markets that require technical and commercial evaluation of proposals to be doneindependently. While suppliers submit their responses as a single bid package, category managers first analyze the technical merits of the proposal while the commercial aspects of the bid remain sealed. Commercial details of bids that pass the technical evaluation are disclosed in the second evaluation phase, while the details of failed bids remain sealed. Category managers enter surrogate responses on behalf of suppliers by submitting the technical terms of the proposal during the first stage of the negotiation, and only entering the commercial terms if the first stage evaluation is successful.

References: See What's Coming in Oracle Procurement Cloud (Release 9), page 8

https://fusionhelp.oracle.com/helpPortal/topic/TopicId_P_EDADAB5CC7CF0747E040D30A68811553

Question: 9

In a Procurement implementation, your customer has a requirement for a given business unit to enable “funds check” on purchase orders. This requires that budgetary control be enabled.

What configuration must you complete to enable budgetary control in that business unit?

A. Enable budgetary control in both the Configure Requisition Business Function and Configure Procurement Business Function by selecting the business unit in scope.

B. Enable budgetary control by selecting the business unit in scope using the task Configure Procurement and Payables Options.

C. Enable budgetary control by selecting the business unit in scope using the task Configure Procurement Business Function.

D. Enable budgetary control by selecting the ledger and business unit by using the task Manage Budgetary Control.

Answer: B

Question: 10

While configuring offerings, you had deselected the “Supply Chain Financial Orchestration of Procurement Flows” check box and had locked the feature. However, because of changes in the business requirements, you are required to enable the feature.

Identify the prerequisite step to perform this change.

A. Set the implementation status to “In Progress” of the Procurement Offering.

B. Deselect the “Enable for Implementation” check box of the Procurement Offering.

C. Change the Provisioned to “No” of the Procurement Offering.

D. Navigate to the “Select Feature Choices” page of the Procurement Offering and unlock the feature.

Answer: B

Explanation:

If you used Inventory Management intercompany functionality prior to Release 9, then after your

upgrade to Release 9, you must do the following to enable intercompany supply chain flows using

Supply Chain Financial Orchestration:

References: Oracle Procurement Cloud Release 9 Whats New (5 May 2015), page 24

Question: 1

After loading your budget data into Fusion General Ledger, you can view budget balances using these feature.

Which feature does not belong on the list?

A. Application Development Framework Desktop Integration(ADFdi)

B. Account Inspector

C. Account Monitor

D. Smart View

Answer: B

Question: 2

You need to build a complex account rule. Which four value types can you use in your definition?

A. Value Set

B. Constant

C. Existing Account Rule

D. Account Combination

E. Mapping Set

F. Source

Answer: A, B, C, F

Question: 3

Your customer has enabled budgetary and encumbrance controls at the requisition level. You have a purchase order for $1,000 USD, which is fully reserved and has one invoice for $600 USD. When the purchase order is matched through the final match process, the purchase order is closed for further invoicing.

What happens to the remaining $400 USD?

A. Invoice type will have less funds available by $400 USD.

B. Manual encumbrance journal needs to be entered In General Ledger to release the budget amount of $400 USD.

C. Only obligation type will have $400 USD funds available.

D. $400 USD will be added back to available funds

E. $400USD will be expired and not available for use.

Answer: A

Question: 4

Your user forgot the password. How do you resolve this?

A. Use the Manage Users page to update the user's information and change the password.

B. Use Oracle Identity Management (OIM) to reset the user's password.

C. Log in to the user's machine as an Administrator and change the password from the login pa

D. Use Access Policy Manager (APM) to reset the user's password.

E. Create a new user ID and password for the user.

Answer: B

Reference:

http://docs.oracle.com/cd/E21764_01/doc.1111/e15477/pwd.htm#IMINT236

Question: 5

Identify three differences between Oracle Transactional Business Intelligence (OTBI) and Oracle Business Intelligence Applications (OBIA).

A. OBIA is based on the universal data warehouse design with different prebuilt adapters that canconnect to various source application

B. Both OBIA and OTBI provide a set of predefined reports and dashboards and a library of metrics that help to measure business performance

C. OBIA works for multiple sources including E-Business Suite, PeopleSoft, JD Edwards, SAP, andFusion Applications.

D. OTBI allows you to create custom reports from real-time transactional data against thedatabase directly

E. Cloud customers can use both OTBI and OBIA.

Answer: B,C,D

Question: 6

Your customer is using budgetary control and encumbrance. You have an open purchase order for $500 USD, which you decide to match to an invoice for $300 USD.

What will be the fund status of the purchase order and invoice?

A. The purchase order is Partially Liquidated and the invoice is Partially Reserved.

B. The purchase order is Partially Liquidated and the invoice will be reserved.

C. Both are reserved.

D. The purchase order is liquidated and the invoice is Partially Reserved. E. Both are Partially Reserved.

F. The purchase order is Open and the invoice is validated.

Answer: C

Question: 7

Which two delivered roles can access the full functionality of Functional Setup Manager,

A. Application Implementation Manager

B. Functional Setup Manager Superuser

C. Application Implementation Consultant

D. Any functional user

E. IT Security Manager

Answer: A,C

Question: 8

Which two statements are true regarding how Intercompany Balancing Rule, are defied?

A. All ledgers engaged in an intercompany transaction must share the same chart: of accounts in order to define balancing rules

B. You can only define balancing rules for different journals' sources. You cannot define balancing rules for different journal categories.

C. You can define different balancing rules for different combinations of journal sources, journal categories, and transaction types

D. You can define different rules for different charts of accounts, ledgers, legal entities, and primary balancing segment value.

Answer: AD

Question: 9

The Accounting Manager requests that a schedule be created to automatically post journals from subledgers at different times.

Which journal attribute should you use to set the automatic posting criteria?

A. Journal Category

B. Journal Source

C. Journal Batch

D. Journal Description

Answer: C

Question: 10

Which three reporting tools are based on real-time data or balances?

A. Oracle Business Intelligence Applications (OBIA

B. Smart View

C. Business Intelligence Publisher (BI Publisher)

D. Oracle transactional Business Intelligence (OTBI)

E. Oracle Financial Reporting (FR)

Answer: BDE

Question: 11

Your customer wants to have balance sheets and income statements for their cost center and program segments. That is, they want to have three balancing segments.

Which two recommendations would you give your customer?

A. When entering journals manually, the customer will need to make sure that the debits and credits are equal across all balancing segments because the system will not automatically balance the journal.

B. Every journal where debits do not equal credits across the three balancing segments will result in the System generating extra journal lines to balance the entry.

C. Additional intercompany rules will need to be defined for the two additional balancing segments.

D. Ledger balancing rules will need to be defined to instruct the system on how to generate balancing entries for the second and third balancing segments.

Answer: A,D

Question: 1

Your client wants to use the fastest method to enter high-volume, simple voucher entries. What Voucher Entry would you recommend to your client to use?

A. Standard Voucher Entry

B. Voucher Logging Entry

C. Speed Voucher Entry

D. Multi-Voucher, Multi-Supplier

E. Multi-Company, Single-Supplier

Answer: C

Explanation:

download.oracle.com/docs/cd/E13781_01/jded/.../e190AIO-B0908.pdf

Question: 2

Your client would like to know if they should set up additional customer records or use Line of Business processing.

Why would you want to activate Line of Business processing?

A. To set up multiple sets SIC values for the customer.

B. To use a different default business unit for invoice entry.

C. To establish multiple Address Book records.

D. To establish a credit limit hierarchy by company.

E. To set up multiple sets of default information for the customer by company.

Answer: E

Question: 3

The Supplier Analysis report shows Year to Date information that is inaccurate. Why is this so?

A. The AP Annual Close has not been processed.

B. Your Data Selection in the Supplier Master report is incorrect.

C. The aging accounts are not set up in the A/P Constants.

D. The Beginning Year A/P and A/P period fields have not been updated In the Company Numbers and Names.

E. The Supplier/Customer Totals by G/L Accounts report has not been run.

Answer: B

Question: 4

Your financial implementation client lead needs assistance on understanding the Detail Method of Intercompany settlements. You explain that the Detail Method uses _______to track Intercompany settlements and the company associated with the first journal entry line acts as the _________ for the transaction.

A. Subsidiaries, detail company

B. Subledger, hub company

C. Subledgers, consolidation company

D. Subledgers, detail company

E. Subsidiaries, hub company

Answer: B

Explanation:

download.oracle.com/docs/cd/B34956_01/current/acrobat/120xlaig.pdf

Question: 5

What two ways can a user access the submitted jobs?

A. by entering 'BV' in the fastpath of a Web Client and selecting a form exit

B. by typing 'Jobs' in the fastpath of a Web Client D C) by selecting Submitted Jobs from the menu

C. by taking a form exit from the Address Book

D. by selecting 'My System Profile' from the menu

Answer: A, D

Question: 6

You are going through the month end dose process. If you run the Account Balance without Account Master Integrity report and have the processing option set to update mode/ what do you update?

A. the business unit of all account ledger records that have an invalid business unit number

B. the account description of ail account ledger records that have an invalid company number

C. the company number of all account ledger records that have an invalid company number

D. the company number of the account master records with the correct business unit

E. the company number of all account balance records that have an invalid company number

Answer: E

Question: 7

You were asked to create an allocation of all advertising expenses to all marketing departments based on each individual marketing department's sales revenue. Assuming that the advertising expense object accounts and sales revenue object accounts are within one specified range, how will you most efficiently accomplish this allocation?

A. Use a Model Journal Entry

B. Use the Variable Numerator Allocation

C. Use the Recurring Journal Entry

D. Use the Indexed Allocation

E. Use a Variable Model

Answer: B

Explanation:

www.syntax.net/eng/courses_aug.../General_Accounting_Rel_9_0.pdf

Question: 8

Your client wants help with the budget process. When you create budget pattern codes for each business year, you can:

A. Create up to 12 seasonal pattern codes and spread amounts equally across the number of periods.

B. Create multiple seasonal pattern codes, assign the pattern codes to the budgeted accounts, and spread amounts across the periods, according the pattern setup.

C. Create an unlimited number of seasonal pattern codes, spread amounts equally across the number of periods, and bypass spreading amounts if you bypass spreading for every account in the company.

D. Create four seasonal pattern codes, spread amounts equally across the number of periods, and bypass spreading amounts.

E. Create only one pattern code for each company, although different companies can have different pattern codes if desired.

Answer: B

Question: 9

Your client wants the system to calculate discounts on the gross amount of a voucher plus tax. In which of the following programs can the client set up the system to calculate discounts in this manner?

A. Tax Rules by Company

B. Supplier Master

C. Tax Explanation Codes

D. Processing Options for Voucher Entry

E. A/P Constants

Answer: C

Explanation:

download.oracle.com/docs/cd/E13781_01/jded/.../e190ATP-B0908.pdf

Question: 10

Which of the following is NOT an element of Asset Depreciation?

A. Net Book Value

B. Time Value of money

C. Salvage value of money

D. Time

Answer: A

Question: 1

Your company is using basic budgeting and is planning to configure budget control.

You need to identify the additional configuration that is needed.

Which three components will already be configured as s part of the basic Budgeting setup? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. budget models

B. budget exchange rates

C. over budget permissions

D. budget cycles

E. documents and journals

Answer: CDE

Question: 2

You are setting up the budgeting module for your employer and are given a list of budget codes needed in the system.

You want to create a "Preliminary" budget code but are unable to select it on the "budget Codes" form.

Which configuration key enables "Preliminary" and "Apportionments" budget types?

A. General Ledger – advanced II configuration key

B. Budget control configuration key

C. General Ledger configuration key

D. Public Sector configuration key

Answer: A

Question: 3

You decide that department managers must submit budget plans to you each quarter.

You need to use the budget planning template wizard to generate a budget planning template that each department submit to you.

What are three prerequisites for creating a template for budget plan worksheets? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. Create a budget plan and review its information by using a worksheet template.

B. Decide which matrix fields to creat.

C. Select the worksheet template to use for the budget planning process.

D. Decide which fields to use for the header.

E Decide which columns to include on the worksheet.

Answer: ABD

Question: 4

You need all budget transfers to use a workflow except the specific members of the budget transfer rules.

When creating a budget transfer rule, what information is used to define when transfers are allowed?

A. the dimensions on the transfer

B. the amount of the transfer

C. the date of the transfer

D. the employee requesting the transfer

Answer: C

Question: 5

Your company is considering tracking budgets by Account, Department, and Cost Center dimensions. There is a requirement to prevent exceeding the budgeted amounts for each Department but not for each Cost Center.

Which three actions must be performed to allow budget control for Accounts and Department, and basic budgeting by Account, Departments, and Cost Center, before budget control is enabled? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. Select only “MainAccount” and “Department” as budgeting dimensions.

B. Select the main accounts for budget control.

C. Select only “MainAccount” and “Department” as budget control dimensions.

D. Select only “Department” as a budget control dimension.

E. Select only “MainAccount,” “Department” and “CostCenter” as budgeting dimensions.

Answer: BCD

Question: 6

You are creating a budget register entry. You notice that a manual budget reservation will exceed the budget.

What should you do within the budget register entry to satisfy the over-budget condition?

A. enter recurrence

B. transfer balances

C. allocate across periods

D. allocate across dimensions

Answer: A

Question: 7

You are creating a new budget and realize that you need to allocate a certain percentage of the total budget amount across defined periods.

In order to do this on the budget register entry, you need to define the percentage that will be allocated in each period.

What should you set up in order to achieve this goal?

A. budget transfer

B. period allocation key

C. budget allocation term

D. budget cycle

Answer: D

Question: 8

You are an accountant.

You are creating your travel expense budget for the fiscal year and want to enter the same budget amount for each month.

On the budget register entry, which option should you choose?

A. transfer balances

B. allocate across dimensions

C. enter recurrence

D. allocate across periods

Answer: A

Question: 9

You are the director of finance.

You are starting to create budgets for the fiscal year and want to generate budget plans from source information.

Which three options can you choose from in Microsoft Dynamics AX Financial? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A. Generate budget plan from general ledger.

B. Generate budget plan from fixed assets

C. Generate budget plan from forecast positions

D. Generate budget plan from yearly sales

E. Generate budget plans from yearly purchases

Answer: BDE

Question: 10

You are creating a parent budget plan that will consist of budget amounts for all departments.

You then need to create associate budget plans and link them to the parent budget.

Before you can create the associate budget plans, which two steps must be complete? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. The budget plan priority must be selected on the budget plan creation.

B. The budget organization hierarchy must have at least two levels.

C. The budget planning process that you select must be set up for associated budget plans.

D. The individual preparing the budget plan needs appropriate permissions to create an associate budget plan.

Answer: AC

Question: 1

Which two statements regarding candidate readiness are true?

A. Candidates can have different readiness level ratings for each plan on which they are candidates.

B. You can select the candidate readiness so that it displays on the succession plan and in the analytics to compare candidates.

C. Readiness is specific to each succession planned feeds the readiness on the worker profile.

D. The readiness level for succession plans is the same as the Advancement Readiness selection on the Career Planning portrait card.

Answer: A,B

Question: 2

You need to mass-assign goals that exist in the goal library. The requirements are as follows:

- Performance goals A1, A2, and A3 should be assigned to Manager 1’s direct reports.

- Development goals B1, B2, and B3 should be assigned to Manager 2’s direct reports.

Which option accomplished these requirements?

A. Manager 1 and Manager 2 shares goals A1, A2, and A3 and B1, B2, and B3 withdirect reports, respectively.

B. The organization owner should add goals A1, A2, A3, B1, B2, and B3 so they can be accessible as organization goals.

C. The HR Specialist selects goals from the goal library, and then assigns them to the appropriate population.

D. Manager 1 adds goals A1, A2, and A3 and Manager 2 adds goals B1, B2, and B3 to their direct reports’ performance documents.

Answer: D

Question: 3

Your client has 10 different vice-president jobs that are expected to have a high turnover rate. The client informs you that these jobs have identical or nearly identical skill sets. You are tasked with creating a succession plan, which has maximum plan strength.

Which two tasks should be carried out to fulfill your client’s requirements?

A. Select and add a limited number of internal candidates.

B. Use the Job or Position plan type.

C. Use the Incumbent plan type.

D. Select and add a large number of candidates.

Answer: A,B

Question: 4

The Performance document has an approval step right after the Manager Evaluation step in a Performance process flow which also has a Self-Evaluation step. In the same performance, the option of “Evaluation activities can be performed concurrently” is selected.

What happens to the document control when the approval task is triggered and the document approver rejects the approval request?

A. The control of the document comes to the worker’s Line Manager.

B. The control of the document comes to the worker.

C. The control of the document is open and whoever opens and saves the document first, the document is locked for that role.

D. The control of the document remains with the approver until the performance document is shared.

Answer: A

Question: 5

Which three options can be controlled by Performance Roles?

A. Competency Section

B. Questionnaire

C. Goals Section

D. Goals section rating scale

E. Competency section rating scale

F. Performance document period

Answer: B,C,F

Question: 6

As an HR specialist, you want to mass-assign goals to workers. While assigning the goals, you selected a goal plan but did not select a goal plan period. Choose the correct option that holds true for the goal plan period in this scenario.

A. The organization owner of the respective worker assigns a goal plan period based on the individual organization goal plan period.

B. The HR specialist who assigned the goal plan either sends notification to workers about the goal plan period or manually populates the plan period based on the expected goal completion date.

C. The workers populate the plan period for the goal plan based on the expected goal’s target completion date.

D. The system determines and auto-populates appropriate goal plan and sub-period based on the goal’s target date.

Answer: B

Question: 7

Identify four correct statements that describe the Performance Template.

A. In theperformance template, you cannot specify static content, such as competencies and goals.

B. In the performance template, you cannot edit sections in the template.

C. In the performance template, you can edit sections in the template.

D. In the performancetemplate, you can select the document type, sections, process flows to use, and any additional content on which to rate workers.

E. In the performance template, you can specify the processing rules for the document, and enter the periods for which the performance documents are valid.

F. In the performance template, you can select the roles that can access the performance documents created from the template.

Answer: C,D,E,F

Question: 8

A specific goal from the goal library is added by a worker. Later, the HR specialist changes the status of the goal in the goal library to “Inactive”. How does the system behave when the goal status is saved?

A. It successfully saves the status without affecting the worker’s goals and the goal is prevented from future copying.

B. It throws an error saying “Goal is already in use”.

C. It deletes the goalfrom the worker’s goals and successfully saves the status.

D. It throws an error saying “Insufficient Privileges”.

E. It completely deletes the goal from the system.

Answer: C

Question: 9

An employee transfers from the US Sales department to the Hong Kong Sales department midway through the period covered by the US Sales Annual Evaluation performance document. The HR specialist has run the batch eligibility process for the last time after the employee transferred, making him ineligible to use the US Sales Annual Evaluation performance document. However, the organization process requires that the employee be evaluated using performance documents for both his old and new locations.

The HR specialist navigates to the Manage Worker Eligibility page, and selects the employee. Then the HR specialist clicks the Change Eligibility button, selects the US Sales Annual Evaluation performance documents, and specifies to force it eligible.

Which statement is correct about the ability of the employee and his manager to perform evaluation?

A. Since the employee no longer meets the eligibility criteria, only the new manager can access the performance document to perform the evaluation.

B. Even though the employee no longer meets the eligibility criteria, he and his new manager can still access the performance document to perform the evaluation.

C. Since the employee no longer meets the eligibility criteria, the employee and his manager are not able to conduct performance evaluation in his new location.

D. The employee and his manager can access the performance document to perform evaluation only in a new location.

Answer: A

Question: 10

Your customer requires a Mid-Year review and Annual Review for the current business process to work in Oracle Performance Management Cloud. They have a Self-Evaluation step in both the performance templates but they would like to notify the employee’s manager about the completion of the Self-Evaluation step only in the Annual Review Document to reduce the mail traffic.

Which statement is correct about implementing this requirement?

A. This notification cannot be controlled at the performance template level and once turned on will fire for the step for all the Performance templates.

B. The Activity Name for Manager Role will be left bank for the Mid-Year review process flow.

C. The Notify Manager check box will be deselected in the Mid-Year review template and will be selected for the Annual review template.

D. The Notify Manager check box will be not selected in the Overall Summary section in the Mid-Year review template and this will be selected for the Annual review template.

Answer: B

Question: 1

Which default value do the Job Code table and Location table have in common?

A. Salary Plan

B. Work Period

C. Tax Location

D. Standard Hours

E. Establishment ID

Answer: A

Question: 2

Which three statements describe the benefits of using tableset sharing in the PeopleSoft system? (Choose three.)

A. Tableset sharing uses SetID to restrict or grant access to data within a table.

B. Tableset sharing allows organizations to track and report business information.

C. Tableset sharing enables organizations to group rows of data within a control table by using a high-level key called a SetID.

D. Tableset sharing uses Department ID in conjunction with department security tree to restrict or grant access to data within a table.

E. Tableset sharing enables organizations to utilize indexing capabilities on mapped records for faster search results on employee data.

F. Tableset sharing enables organizations to share information instead of entering it multiple times, when large portions of data are the same for various business units.

Answer: A, C, F

Question: 3

On the Job Data Work Location tab for a new hire, Company is a required field.

You can default Company from the _____ table.

A. Location

B. Job Code

C. Position Data

D. Business Unit

E. Holiday Schedule

Answer: C

Question: 4

View the Exhibits.

Your client wants to set up a new department called ABC Headquarter for their newly acquired company ABC. The client shares the department and location information cross all business units. The HR Administrator has checked that the location code ABCHQ showed up under the Location Table Search Result page under SetID "Share". However, when she tried to attach this location code to the new department she is trying to create, she got the error message.

Which two setups may have caused the error message to be displayed? (Choose two.)

A. The Location SetID may not be valid for this department.

B. The Department may have an earlier Effective Date than the Location.

C. The Location and the Department may not belong to the same Business Unit.

D. The Location may have been inactivated before the Department's Effective Date.

E. The Location may not be associated with the proper company that the department is attached to.

F. The TableSet Control table may not be set up correctly for the Record_Group Location and the Record_Group Department.

Answer: B, D

Question: 5

Your client is implementing PeopleSoft HRMS system with Payroll Interface. The client is to start configuring Pay Group table.

What table value should exist in the system before configuring Pay Groups?

A. Location

B. Company

C. Salary Plan

D. Salary Step

E. Salary Grade

F. Additional Pay

Answer: B

Question: 6

Which PeopleSoft table do you use to identify a group of employees who share common pay characteristics?

A. Job Code Table

B. Company Table

C. Pay Group Table

D. Salary Plan Table

E. Salary Grade Tables

F. Comp Rate Code Table

Answer: C

Question: 7

You are at your client site working on PeopleSoft HRMS implementation. One of your tasks is to add systemwide defaults in order to save time when a user is entering information in transaction tables. Identify which field is NOT a default option in the Org Default by Permission List component.

A. SetID

B. Country

C. Company

D. To Currency

E. Business Unit

F. Compensation Frequency

Answer: F

Question: 8

Your organization has decided to use a department security tree for Row-Level security in PeopleSoft HRMS system.

You decided to use the XYZ permission list to secure data using the Security by Department Tree component.

Which step do you need to perform to ensure that Row-Level security is enforced?

A. Add the XYZ permission list to User Profile.

B. Add the XYZ permission list to Security Set.

C. Add the XYZ permission list to Tree Manager.

D. Add the XYZ permission list to Configuration Manager.

E. Add the XYZ permission list to a role and then assign that role to a user.

Answer: A

Question: 9

Using a Permission List associated with a user and identifying security sets and access types in the Security by Permission List component of PeopleSoft are known as _____.

A. Role-based data permission security

B. Tree-based data permission security

C. Group-based data permission security

D. Country-based data permission security

E. PeopleCode-based data permission security

Answer: A

Question: 10

Your organization has decided to implement row-level security. You suggested securing data by associating the company with people having jobs. This method of securing data is known as _____.

A. Access Type / Role

B. Permission List / Role

C. Security set / Access Type

D. Security set / Permission List

E. Permission List / User Profile

F. Access Type / Permission List

Answer: C

Question: 1

You are designing a data warehouse with two fact tables.

The first table contains sales per month and the second table contains orders per day.

Referential integrity must be enforced declaratively.

You need to design a solution that can join a single time dimension to both fact tables.

What should you do?

A. Join the two fact tables.

B. Merge the fact tables.

C. Create a time dimension that can join to both fact tables at their respective granularity.

D. Create a surrogate key for the time dimension.

Answer: C

Explanation:

References:

http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms174537.aspx

http://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms174832.aspx

http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms174884.aspx

http://decipherinfosys.wordpress.com/2007/02/01/surrogate-keys-vs-natural-keys-for-primary-key/

http://www.agiledata.org/essays/keys.html

http://www.databasejournal.com/features/mssql/article.php/3922066/SQL-Server-Natural-Key-

Verses-Surrogate-Key.htm

http://www.jamesserra.com/archive/2016/01/surrogate-keys/

Question: 2

You are maintaining a Data Quality Services (DQS) environment.

The production server failed and a new server has been set up. The DQS databases are restored to a

new server.

All the appropriate permissions are granted.

DQS users are experiencing issues connecting to the new Data Quality Server.

You need to enable users to connect to the new server.

Which Surface Area Configuration property should you enable?

A. AdHocRemoteQueriesEnabled

B. SoapEndpointsEnabled

C. ClrIntegrationEnabled

D. RemoteDacEnabled

E. OleAutomationEnabled

F. XpCmdShellEnabled

Answer: C

Question: 3

You are deploying a new SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project to the test environment.

A package in the project uses a custom task component.

You need to ensure that the custom object is deployed on the test environment correctly.

What should you do?

A. Run the package by using the dtexec /rep /conn command.

B. Create a reusable custom logging component.

C. Create an OnError event handler.

D. Use the gacutil command.

E. Use the dtutil /copy command.

F. Deploy the package to the Integration Services catalog by using dtutil and use SQL Server to store

the configuration.

G. Run the package by using the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.

H. Use the Project Deployment Wizard.

I. Deploy the package by using an msi file.

J. Add a data tap on the output of a component in the package data flow.

K. Run the package by using the dtexecui.exe utility and the SQL Log provider.

Answer: D

Reference:

http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms403356.aspx

Question: 4

You administer a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) solution in the SSIS catalog.

A SQL Server Agent job is used to execute a package daily with the basic logging level.

Recently, the package execution failed because of a primary key violation when the package inserted

data into the destination table.

You need to identify all previous times that the package execution failed because of a primary key

What should you do?

A. Use an event handler for OnError for the package.

B. Use an event handler for OnError for each data flow task.

C. Use an event handler for OnTaskFailed for the package.

D. View the job history for the SQL Server Agent job.

E. View the All Messages subsection of the All Executions report for the package.

F. Store the System::SourceID variable in the custom log table.

G. Store the System::ServerExecutionID variable in the custom log table.

H. Store the System::ExecutionInstanceGUID variable in the custom log table.

I. Enable the SSIS log provider for SQL Server for OnError in the package control flow.

J. Enable the SSIS log provider for SQL Server for OnTaskFailed in the package control flow.

K. Deploy the project by using dtutil.exe with the /COPY DTS option.

L. Deploy the project by using dtutil.exe with the /COPY SQL option.

M. Deploy the .ispac file by using the Integration Services Deployment Wizard.

N. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.validate_project stored procedure.

O. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.validate_package stored procedure.

P. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.create_execution and

SSISDB.catalog.start_execution stored procedures.

Q. Create a table to store error information. Create an error output on each data flow destination

that writes OnError event text to the table.

R. Create a table to store error information. Create an error output on each data flow destination

that writes OnTaskFailed event text to the table.

Answer: E

Question: 5

You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.

To process complex scientific data originating from a SQL Azure database, a custom task component

is added to the project.

You need to ensure that the custom component is deployed on a test environment correctly.

What should you do?

A. Add an OnError event handler to the SSIS project.

B. Open a command prompt and run the gacutil command.

C. Configure the SSIS solution to use the Project Deployment Model.

D. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /dumperror /conn command.

E. Configure the output of a component in the package data flow to use a data tap.

F. Open a command prompt and execute the package by using the SQL Log provider and running the

dtexecui.exe utility.

G. Open a command prompt and run the dtexec /rep /conn command.

H. Run the dtutil command to deploy the package to the SSIS catalog and store the configuration in

SQL Server.

I. Use an msi file to deploy the package on the server.

J. Open a command prompt and run the dtutil /copy command.

K. Create a reusable custom logging component and use it in the SSIS project.

Answer: B

Reference:

http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms403356.aspx

Question: 6

You are using the Knowledge Discovery feature of the Data Quality Services (DQS) client

application to modify an existing knowledge base.

In the mapping configuration, two of the three columns are mapped to existing domains in the

knowledge base. The third column, named Group, does not yet have a domain.

You need to complete the mapping of the Group column.

What should you do?

A. Map a composite domain to the source column.

B. Create a composite domain that includes the Group column.

C. Add a domain for the Group column.

D. Add a column mapping for the Group column.

Answer: C

Question: 7

You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to implement an

incremental data load strategy.

The package reads data from a source system. Depending on the value in a source column, the

package redirects rows to one of five different data flow paths.

You need to add a data flow transformation to support the package redirection.

Which data flow transformation should you use?

A. Conditional Split

B. Pivot

C. Multicast

D. Lookup

Answer: A

Question: 8

You are adding a new capability to several dozen SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS)

The new capability is not available as an SSIS task. Each package must be extended with the same

new capability.

You need to add the new capability to all the packages without copying the code between packages.

What should you do?

A. Use the Expression task.

B. Use the Script task.

C. Develop a custom task.

D. Use the Script component,

E. Develop a custom component.

Answer: C

Question: 9

You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package.

The package uses a data flow task to source data from a SQL Server database for loading into a

dimension table in a data warehouse.

You need to create a separate data flow path for data that has been modified since it was last

Which data flow components should you use to identify modified data? (Each correct answer

presents a complete solution. Choose all that apply.)

A. Multicast

B. Data Conversion

C. Lookup

D. Slowly Changing Dimension

E. Aggregate

Answer: A,C

Explanation: A: The transformation that distributes data sets to multiple outputs.

The transformation that distributes data sets to multiple outputs.

C: Lookup Transformation

The transformation that looks up values in a reference table using an exact match.

Note:

* SQL Server Integration Services provides three different types of data flow components:

sources, transformations, and destinations. Sources extract data from data stores such as tables and

views in relational databases, files, and Analysis Services databases.

Transformations modify, summarize, and clean data. Destinations load data into data stores or create

in-memory datasets.

Incorrect:

Not B: Data Conversion Transformation

The transformation that converts the data type of a column to a different data type.

Not D: Slowly Changing Dimension Transformation

The transformation that configures the updating of a slowly changing dimension.

Not E: The Aggregate transformation applies aggregate functions, such as Average, to column values

and copies the results to the transformation output. Besides aggregate functions, the transformation

provides the GROUP BY clause, which you can use to specify groups to aggregate across.

Question: 10

You are designing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) 2016 package that imports data

from a Windows Azure SQL Database database into a SQL Server database.

The SSIS package has the following requirements:

* Every night, a very large amount of data is imported into the staging database.

* Package processing time must be minimized.

* The package must run on its own dedicated server when it is deployed to production.

* Transaction log activity when data is imported must be minimized.

You need to design the package to meet the requirements.

Which destination component should you use?

A. DataReader

B. OLE DB

C. ADO.NET

D. SQL Server

Answer: B

Question: 11

You are completing the installation of the Data Quality Server component of SQL Server

Data Quality Services (DQS).

You need to complete the post-installation configuration.

What should you do?

A. Install the Analysis Services OLE DB Provider.

B. Make the data available for DQS operations.

C. Run the Data Quality Server Installer.

D. Install ADOMD.NET.

Answer: C

Explanation:

References:

http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ff877917.aspx

http://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/gg492277.aspx

Question: 12

You are performance tuning a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to load sales data

from a source system into a data warehouse that is hosted on Windows Azure

SQL Database. The package contains a data flow task that has 10 source-to-destination execution

Only five of the source-to-destination execution trees are running in parallel.

You need to ensure that all the execution trees run in parallel.

What should you do?

A. Add OnError and OnWarning event handlers.

B. Create a new project and add the package to the project.

C. Query the ExecutionLog table.

D. Add an Execute SQL task to the event handlers.

Answer: A

Question: 13

You are administering SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) permissions on a production

server that runs SQL Server 2016.

Quality Assurance (QA) testers in the company must have permission to perform the following tasks

on specific projects:

* View and validate projects and packages

* View Environments and Environment variables

* Execute packages

You need to grant the minimum possible privileges to the QA testers.

What should you do? (Each correct answer presents part of the solution. Choose all that apply.)

A. In the SSISDB database, add QA Tester logons to the ssis_admin role.

B. In the msdb database, add QA Tester logons to the db_ssisoperator role.

C. Grant Modify permission in the projects to the QA Tester logons.

D. Grant Read permission in the SSIS catalog folder, the projects, and the Environments to the QA

Tester logons.

E. Grant Execute permission in the projects to the QA Tester logons.

F. In the msdb database, add QA Tester logons to the db_ssisItduser role.

Answer: B,D

Question: 14

You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) project by using the Project

Deployment Model. All packages in the project must log custom messages.

You need to produce reports that combine the custom log messages with the system- generated log

messages. What should you do?

A. Use an event handler for OnError for the package.

B. Use an event handler for OnError for each data flow task.

C. Use an event handler for OnTaskFailed for the package.

D. View the job history for the SQL Server Agent job.

E. View the All Messages subsection of the All Executions report for the package.

F. Store the System::SourceID variable in the custom log table.

G. Store the System::ServerExecutionID variable in the custom log table.

H. Store the System::ExecutionInstanceGUID variable in the custom log table.

I. Enable the SSIS log provider for SQL Server for OnError in the package control flow.

J. Enable the SSIS log provider for SQL Server for OnTaskFailed in the package control flow,

K. Deploy the project by using dtutil.exe with the /COPY DTS option.

L. Deploy the project by using dtutil.exe with the /COPY SQL option.

M. Deploy the .ispac file by using the Integration Services Deployment Wizard.

N. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.validate_project stored procedure.

O. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the SSISDB.catalog.validate_package stored procedure.

P. Create a SQL Server Agent job to execute the

SSISDB.catalog.create_execution and SSISDB.catalog.start_execution stored procedures.

Q. Create a table to store error information. Create an error output on each data flow destination

that writes OnError event text to the table.

R. Create a table to store error information. Create an error output on each data flow destination

that writes OnTaskFailed event text to the table.

Answer: G

Question: 15

You are performance tuning a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package to load sales data

from a source system into a data warehouse that is hosted on Windows Azure

SQL Database.

The package contains a data flow task that has seven source-to-destination execution trees.

Only three of the source-to-destination execution trees are running in parallel.

You need to ensure that all the execution trees run in parallel.

What should you do?

A. Set the EngineThreads property of the data flow task to 7.

B. Set the MaxConcurrentExcecutables property of the package to 7.

C. Create seven data flow tasks that contain one source-to-destination execution tree each.

D. Place the data flow task in a For Loop container that is configured to execute seven times.

Answer: A

Question: 16

You are implementing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that imports

Microsoft Excel workbook data into a Windows Azure SQL Database database. The package has been

deployed to a production server that runs Windows Server 2008 R2 and

SQL Server 2016.

The package fails when executed on the production server.

You need to ensure that the package can load the Excel workbook data without errors. You need to

use the least amount of administrative effort to achieve this goal.

What should you do?

A. Create a custom SSIS source component that encapsulates the 32-bit driver and compile it in 64-bit

B. Install a 64-bit ACE driver and execute the package by using the 64-bit run-time option.

C. Execute the package by using the 32-bit run-time option.

D. Replace the SSIS Excel source with a SSIS Flat File source.

Answer: C

Explanation: * See step 3 below.

To publish an Excel worksheet to Azure SQL Database, your package will contain a Data

Flow Task, Excel Source task, and ADO NET Destination.

1) Create an SSIS project.

2) Drop a Data Flow Task onto the Control Flow design surface, and double click the

Data Flow Task.

3) Drop an Excel Source onto the Data Flow design surface.

Note When using the Excel Source task on a 64-bit machine, set Run64BitRuntime to

* Incorrect:

Not D: The Flat File source reads data from a text file. The text file can be in delimited, fixed width, or

mixed format.

Question: 17

You are developing a SQL Server Integration Services (SSIS) package that loads data from a

source transactional tables in a data warehouse.

You discover that one of the data flows loads incorrect data to one of the destination tables.

You need to identify the cause of the incorrect data flow. Which tool should you use?

A. SSIS logging.

B. a breakpoint

C. a data viewer

D. the locals window.

Answer: C

Question: 1

Application users report that a query sometimes runs much slower than usual. You suspect that the high system load is slowing down the query execution

Where can you review the overall system workload when a query is executed?

There are 2 correct answers to this question

Response:

A. kernel trace

B. early watch alert

C. SQL trace

D. SAP Hana studio

Answer: AC

Question: 2

You execute an authorization trace in the SAP HANA studio. Where can you review the outcome?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. In the result screen of the trace configuration.

B. In the indexserver trace diagnosis file.

C. In the authorization dependency viewer.

D. In the monitoring view M_SERVICE_TRACES

Answer: B

Question: 3

In the SAP HANA studio, in which tab can you find information about the performance of queries?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. Alerts

B. Diagnosis Files

C. System Information

D. Trace Configuration

Answer: B

Question: 4

What services must be configured and running on the SAP Hana server to monitor the SAP Hana instance in SAP Solution manager?

There are 2 correct answers to this question

Response:

A. preprocessor service

B. SAP SMD agent

C. SAP host agent

D. compile service

Answer: BC

Question: 5

What information is shown on the overview tab of the administration console in the SAP Hana studio?

There are 3 correct answers to this question

Response:

A. operational status

B. Linux kernel version

C. system parameters

D. distributed system

E. memory usage of the services

Answer: ABD

Question: 6

What does the save point process in SAP HANA do?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. It synchronizes changed data to the disaster recovery system.

B. It frees up memory by saving non-active data to disk.

C. It saves changed data to disk at regular intervals.

D. It saves changed data to disk when transactions are committed.

Answer: C

Question: 7

Which of the following are benefits of using the database migration option(DMO) procedure of the software update manager during migration to SAP Hana?

There are 2 correct answers to this question

Response:

A. a system of any source release can be upgraded and migrated in a single step

B. the shadow kernel runs on the target SAP Hana database host

C. in-place migration keeps the application server and system ID stable

D. the original database is kept and can be reactivated as a fallback

Answer: CD

Question: 8

Which operating system commands show the SAP HANA processes?

There are 2 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. HDB proc

B. HDB version

C. HDB admin

D. HDB info

Answer: AD

Question: 9

What privileges can you manage with the SAP HANA Live authorization assistant?

There are 2 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. Analytical

B. Application

C. System

D. Object

Answer: AD

Question: 10

Which privilege required to configure kernel profile?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. SAP_INTERNAL HANA_SUPPORT

B. Data admin

C. Trace admin

D. INIFILE admin

Answer: A

Question: 11

When does SAP recommend that you execute the first system backup?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. After completing the post-installation steps

B. After the first data load

C. After a complete load of master data

D. Before updating the system

Answer: A

Question: 12

In SAP HANA supports recovery measures from failures, which of the following options are not valid for disaster recovery support?

There are 2 correct answers to this question

Response:

A. Backups

B. Storage replication

C. Service auto-restart

D. Host auto-failover

Answer: AB

Question: 1

Refer to the exhibit.

An admin wants to bring online a new leaf node into their ACI fabric. Before registering the leaf node, the admin checks the current status arid sees this output.

Which option is the reason for the admin to see this output?

A. The wrong catalog firmware is running on the APIC.

B. This output is expected until the admin registers the leaf node and assigns it a role.

C. The leaf node is yet to be physical connected to the fabric.

D. The DHCP server running on the APIC has failed and thus the leaf node has not been able to obtain an IP address.

E. This output is expected until the admin registers the leaf node with an ID and name.

Answer: A

Question: 2

The OS team has requested that you expand the receive queues of an existing server. Which action accomplishes this change?

A. Reconfigure the vNlC to the requested queue size.

B. Configure and apply a custom adapter policy.

C. Configure and apply a custom LAN connectivity policy.

D. Reconfigure the default vNIC behavior.

Answer: B

Question: 3

Refer to the exhibit.

An admin has created a new EPG in an ACI fabric The admin then specified static path binding as shown in exhibit After submitting this policy configuration, the admin noticed that this newly created EPG had the fault shown in the exhibit. Which option is the like explanation of this fault?

A. The admin incorrectly configured this static path as a "trunk" when it should have been configured as an access (untagged) port.

B. The encap VLAN configured is not within the allowed range of VLANs as specified by the associated domain.

C. There is not enough information to determine the cause of the problem.

D. The admin incorrectly configured this static path to have a deployment immediacy as "Immediate" when it should have been configured a "on-demand"

E. There is not fault. The fault is currently in the soaking state and the fault will automatically clear and everything will work as expected.

Answer: B

Question: 4

Which standard REST API method allows you to create a managed object?

A. POST

B. SET

C. PATCH

D. GET

Answer: A

Question: 5

Which four options are part of Cisco ONE Enterprise Cloud Suite product portfolio? (Choose four.)

A. Cisco Intercloud Fabric for Business

B. Application Policy Infrastructure Controller

C. Cisco Virtual Application Container Services

D. Cisco Prime Service Catalog

E. Cisco Open SDN Controller

F. Cisco UCS Director

Answer: ACDF

Question: 6

Which two statements about policing, queuing, and scheduling are true? (Choose two.)

A. The WRHD algorithm is reactive approach only to traffic congestion.

B. Policing is the monitoring of data rates for a particular class of traffic. The device can also monitor associated burst sizes.

C. You can apply weighted random early detection to a class of traffic, which allows packets to be dropped based on the CoS field.

D. You can schedule traffic by imposing a maximum data rate on a class of traffic so that excess packets are dropped.

Answer: BC

Question: 7

Which three options are common PTP device types? (Choose three.)

A. ordinary clock

B. network clock

C. crystal clock

D. transparent clock

E. boundary clock

F. sundials

Answer: ADE

Question: 8

Refer to the exhibit.

When specifying subnets under a bridge domain for given tenant, the user can specify the scope of a subnet. Which definition of the public subnet scope is true?

A. It indicates that this subnet is advertised to the external router by the border leaf.

B. It indicates that this subnet is advertised to public Internet and must be protected by a firewall.

C. It indicates that it must be leaked to one or more private networks within ACI fabric.

D. It indicates that this subnet is advertised to the border leaf in ACI fabric

Answer: A

Question: 9

Which statement about glean throttling in Cisco NX-OS is true?

When forwarding an incoming IP packet in line card, if the Address Resolution Protocol request for the next hop is not resolved, the line card forwards the packets to the supervisor. The supervisor resolves the MAC address for the next hop and programs the hardware.

The traffic policing feature manages the maximum rate of traffic through a token bucket algorithm. The token bucket algorithm can use the user-configured values to determine the maximum rate of traffic allowed on an interface at a given moment in time.

Cisco NX-OS supports a rate-limiting feature to manages the access bandwidth policy for a network by ensuring that traffic falling within specified rate parameters is sent, while dropping packets that exceed the acceptable amount of traffic or sending them with a different priority.

The traffic shaping feature in Cisco NX-OS to avoid bottle necks in the network.

Answer: A

Question: 10

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the feature from the left onto the correct benefit on the right.

Answer:

Congestion Notification

IEEE 802.1 Qau

Data center Bridging Exchange

DCBX

Priority-Based Flow Control

IEEE 802.1 Qbb

Enhanced transmission selection

IEEE 802.1 Qaz

Question: 11

Refer to the exhibit.

Which outcome of this configuration is true?

A. Any newly created traffic flows do not use this fabric interconnect.

B. All traffic ceases to flow through this fabric interconnect after a reboot.

C. Servers cease to use this fabric interconnect upon next reboot.

D. All traffic ceases to flow through this fabric interconnect.

Answer: D

Question: 12

Refer to the exhibit.

If you inspect a VXLAN packet at point2, which two options about the outer fields in the VXLAN header are true? (Choose two.)

A. Outer S-MAC = MAC-1 ; outer D-MAC = MAC-2

B. Outer S-IP = IP-1 ; Outer D-IP = IP-4

C. Outer S-IP = IP-1 ; Outer D-IP = IP-2

D. Outer S-MAC = MAC-1 ; outer D-MAC = MAC-4

E. Outer S-IP = IP-A ; Outer D-IP = IP-B

F. Outer S-MAC = MAC-A ; Outer D-MAC = MAC-B

Answer: AB

Question: 13

Which three statements about ASM and SSM are correct? (Choose three.)

A. By default, the SSM group range for PIM is 232.0.0.0/8 and for PIM6 is FF3x/96.

B. PIM ASM is not fully supported on a vPC.

C. If you want to use the default SSM group range, you must configure the SSM group range.

D. ASM mode requires that you configure an RP.

E. In ASM mode, only the last-hop router switches from the shared tree to the SPT.

Answer: ADE

Question: 14

Which three benefits do VXLANs offer compared to VLANs? (Choose three.)

A. VXIAN uses a 16-bit VNID to overcome the 4094 VLAN scale limitation.

B. It provides better utilization of available network paths in the overlay infrastructure.

C. VXLAN uses a 24-bit VNID to overcome the 4094 VLAN scale limitation.

D. It provides better utilization of available network paths in the underlay infrastructure.

E. It provides a solution to extend Layer 2 segments over a single Layer 2 VLAN.

F. It provides a solution to extend Layer 2 segments over a shared Layer 3 routed network.

Answer: CDF

Question: 15

Which programming language is used at the core of OpenStack?

A. C++

B. Ruby

C. Python

D. Java

Answer: C

Question: 16

For which two multicast distribution modes is RP Configuration required? (Choose two.)

A. SSM

B. BIDIR

C. RPF routes for multicast

D. ASM

Answer: BD

Question: 17

Cisco UCS Director provides an option to offer the report metadata and REST API Browser for developers. Which configuration step is needed Cisco USC Director to enable this feature?

A. Enable the developer menu.

B. Enable report metadata

C. Enable the debugging menu.

D. Enable the REST API

Answer: A

Question: 18

DRAG DROP

Drag and drop the spanning-tree port from the left onto the correct description on the right.

Answer:

Backup port

Disabled port

Root port

Alternate port

Designated port

Question: 19

Which three service request states are valid in Cisco UCS Director service request execution state? (Choose three.)

A. debugging

B. scheduled

C. running

D. listening

E. failed

Answer: BCE

Question: 20

Which IETF standard is the most efficient messaging protocol used in an loT network?

A. SNMP

B. HTTP

C. CoAP

D. MQTT

Answer: C

Question: 21

Refer to the exhibit.

Within an ACI fabric, a routing protocol is needed to assist with route redistribution between the outside networks and the internal fabric. Which routing protocol is needed to run in the fabric at location 1 to allow the VM access to the networks advertised by the external Layer 3 network.

A. eBGP

B. OSPF

C. MP-BGP

D. iBGP

E. IS-IS

Answer: C

Question: 22

How do you manually configure a vNIC MAC address?

A. Use the mac -address-table static command.

B. Modify the dynamic vNIC connection policy.

C. Use the set identity dynamic-mac command.

D. Modify the adapter policy.

Answer: D

Question: 23

Which two statements about import and export route control in an ACI fabric are true? (Choose two.)

A. Prefixes learned from OSPF/EIGRP L30urs are never permitted inbound by default.

B. Prefixes learned from BGP L3outs cannot be filtered inbound.

C. Export route control controls if the prefixes are redistributed from MP-BGP to the egress leaf.

D. Prefixes permitted inbound are redistributed into MP-BGP at the ingress leaf.

Answer: CD

Question: 24

While doing service insertion with vASA with route peering, which two parts must be configured? (Choose two.)

A. The path for interfaces must be specified when the L4-L7 device is created.

B. The route peering profile must be specified when the L4-L7 Service Graph template is created.

C. The VM name must be specified when the L4-L7 device is created.

D. The chassis must be specified when the L4-L7 device is created.

Answer: AB

Question: 25

Which definition of Intelligent Service Card Manager is true?

A. part of the RISE service that is responsible for establishing initial connectivity with remote appliances (for example. Citrix NetScaler)

B. management software to manage Cisco Nexus devices

C. management software to manage provisioning of RISE services on a Cisco Nexus switch

D. part of the RISE service that resides on a Cisco Nexus switch that is responsible for handling tasks related to receiving Route Health Injection massages from appliances and programming those routes in the universal routing information base

E. part of the RISE service that resides on an appliance (for example, Citrix NetScaler) that is responsible for sending Route Health Injection massages to a Cisco Nexus switch

Answer: A

Question: 1

Refer to the exhibit. Two Layer 2 Cisco Nexus switches are connected to application servers in a data center. Server A cannot communicate with servers that are in VLANs 3 and 4, but t can communicate with server B and C. What is the cause of the problem?

A. inter VLANs routing is not enabled on both switches

B. Switch I and switch 2 are not physically connected via an access link.

C. A router must be connected to both switches and provide inter VLAN routing.

D. Switch 1 and switch 2 not physically connected via a trunk link.

Answer: C

Question: 2

Which two options describe Junctions of the data center aggregation layer? (Choose two)

A. services layer

B. high-speed packet switching O repeater

C. access control

D. QoS marking

Answer: AC

Question: 3

Which two options are valid VTP commands? {Choose two)

A. feature vtp

B. vtp client mode

C. vtp VLAN

D. vtp version

E. vtp static

Answer: A,D

Question: 4

Which two features must be licensed on a Cisco Nexus 7000 Switch? (Choose two)

A. Virtual Port Channel

B. Layer 3

C. Virtual Device Contexts

D. iSCSI

E. Fibre Channel

Answer: BC

Question: 5

Which two options are multicast addresses? (Choose two.)

A. FD00::2

B. 192.168.2.2

C. FF05::2

D. 226.10.10.10

E. 240.1.0.1

Answer: CD

Question: 1

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that present the same scenario. Each question in the series contains a unique solution that might meet the stated goals. Some question sets might have more than one correct solution, while others might not have a correct solution.

After you answer a question in this section. you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You create a table named Products by running the following Transact-SQL statement:

You have the following stored procedure:

You need to modify the stored procedure to meet the following new requirements:

- Insert product records as a single unit of work.

- Return error number 51000 when a product fails to insert into the database.

- If a product record insert operation fails, the product information must not be permanently written to the database.

Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Answer: B

Explanation:

With X_ABORT ON the INSERT INTO statement and the transaction will be rolled back when an error is raised, it would then not be possible to ROLLBACK it again in the IF XACT_STATE() <> 0 ROLLACK TRANSACTION statement.

Note: A transaction is correctly defined for the INSERT INTO ..VALUES statement, and if there is an error in the transaction it will be caught ant he transaction will be rolled back, finally an error 51000 will be raised.

Note: When SET XACT_ABORT is ON, if a Transact-SQL statement raises a run-time error, the entire transaction is terminated and rolled back.

XACT_STATE is a scalar function that reports the user transaction state of a current running request. XACT_STATE indicates whether the request has an active user transaction, and whether the transaction is capable of being committed.

The states of XACT_STATE are:

0 There is no active user transaction for the current request.

1 The current request has an active user transaction. The request can perform any actions, including writing data and committing the transaction.

2 The current request has an active user transaction, but an error has occurred that has caused the transaction to be classified as an committable transaction.

References:

https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms188792.aspx

https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms189797.aspx

Question: 2

After you answer a question in this section. you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You create a table named Products by running the following Transact-SQL statement:

You have the following stored procedure:

You need to modify the stored procedure to meet the following new requirements:

- Insert product records as a single unit of work.

- Return error number 51000 when a product fails to insert into the database.

- If a product record insert operation fails, the product information must not be permanently written to the database.

Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Answer: B

Explanation:

A transaction is correctly defined for the INSERT INTO ..VALUES statement, and if there is an error in the transaction it will be caught ant he transaction will be rolled back. However, error number 51000 will not be returned, as it is only used in an IF @ERROR = 51000 statement.

Note: @@TRANCOUNT returns the number of BEGIN TRANSACTION statements that have occurred on the current connection.

References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms187967.aspx

Question: 3

After you answer a question in this section. you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You create a table named Products by running the following Transact-SQL statement:

You have the following stored procedure:

You need to modify the stored procedure to meet the following new requirements:

- Insert product records as a single unit of work.

- Return error number 51000 when a product fails to insert into the database.

- If a product record insert operation fails, the product information must not be permanently written to the database.

Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Answer: A

Explanation:

If the INSERT INTO statement raises an error, the statement will be caught and an error 51000 will be thrown. In this case no records will have been inserted.

Note:

You can implement error handling for the INSERT statement by specifying the statement in a TRY…CATCH construct.

If an INSERT statement violates a constraint or rule, or if it has a value incompatible with the data type of the column, the statement fails and an error message is returned.

References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms174335.aspx

Question: 4

After you answer a question in this section. you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You create a table named Customer by running the following Transact-SQL statement:

You must insert the following data into the Customer table:

You need to ensure that both records are inserted or neither record is inserted.

Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Answer: B

Explanation:

As there are two separate INSERT INTO statements we cannot ensure that both or neither records is inserted.

Question: 5

After you answer a question in this section. you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You create a table named Customer by running the following Transact-SQL statement:

You must insert the following data into the Customer table:

You need to ensure that both records are inserted or neither record is inserted.

Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Answer: B

Explanation:

As there are two separate INSERT INTO statements we cannot ensure that both or neither records is inserted.

Question: 6

After you answer a question in this section. you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You create a table named Customer by running the following Transact-SQL statement:

You must insert the following data into the Customer table:

You need to ensure that both records are inserted or neither record is inserted.

Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Answer: A

Explanation:

With the INSERT INTO..VALUES statement we can insert both values with just one statement. This ensures that both records or neither is inserted.

References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/ms174335.aspx

Question: 7

After you answer a question in this section. you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You have a database that tracks orders and deliveries for customers in North America. The database contains the following tables:

Sales.Customers

Application.Cities

Sales.CustomerCategories

The company’s development team is designing a customer directory application. The application must list customers by the area code of their phone number. The area code is defined as the first three characters of the phone number.

The main page of the application will be based on an indexed view that contains the area and phone number for all customers.

You need to return the area code from the PhoneNumber field.

Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Answer: A

Explanation:

As the result of the function will be used in an indexed view we should use schemabinding.

References: https://sqlstudies.com/2014/08/06/schemabinding-what-why/

Question: 8

After you answer a question in this section. you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You have a database that tracks orders and deliveries for customers in North America. The database contains the following tables:

Sales.Customers

Application.Cities

Sales.CustomerCategories

The main page of the application will be based on an indexed view that contains the area and phone number for all customers.

You need to return the area code from the PhoneNumber field.

Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Answer: B

Explanation:

As the result of the function will be used in an indexed view we should use schemabinding.

References: https://sqlstudies.com/2014/08/06/schemabinding-what-why/

Question: 9

After you answer a question in this section. you will NOT be able to return to it. As a result, these questions will not appear in the review screen.

You have a database that tracks orders and deliveries for customers in North America. The database contains the following tables:

Sales.Customers

Application.Cities

Sales.CustomerCategories

The main page of the application will be based on an indexed view that contains the area and phone number for all customers.

You need to return the area code from the PhoneNumber field.

Solution: You run the following Transact-SQL statement:

Does the solution meet the goal?

A. Yes

B. No

Answer: B

Explanation:

The variable max, in the line DECLARE @areaCode nvarchar(max), is not defined.

Question: 10

Note: This question is part of a series of questions that use the same scenario. For your convenience, the scenario is repeated in each question. Each question presents a different goal and answer choices, but the text of the scenario is exactly the same in each question in this series.

You query a database that includes two tables: Project and Task. The Project table includes the following columns:

You plan to run the following query to update tasks that are not yet started:

You need to return the total count of tasks that are impacted by this UPDATE operation, but are not associated with a project.

What set of Transact-SQL statements should you run?

A. Option A

B. Option B

C. Option C

D. Option D

Answer: B

Explanation:

The WHERE clause of the third line should be WHERE ProjectID IS NULL, as we want to count the tasks that are not associated with a project.

Question: 1

What do drives 0_0_0 to 0_0_4 in a CX4 contain?

A. FLARE and vault

B. Linux OS and metadata

C. DART and vault

D. Enginuity and metadata

Answer: A

Question: 2

What is a characteristic of disk-drive Spin Down?

A. Spin Down is only available on CX4.

B. Drives 0-4 are eligible for Spin Down.

C. Drive Spin Down is available for thin LUNs.

D. Drive Spin Down is available for all drives.

Answer: A

Question: 3

What is the maximum number of disk drives that can be configured in a pool on a CX4-480?

A. 475

B. 16

C. 480

D. 32

Answer: A

Question: 4

A customer currently has four CLARiiON arrays installed. They would like you to implement ESRS.

What monitoring environment is a prerequisite for installing ESRS?

A. Centralized Monitoring

B. Distributed Monitoring

C. Storage Processor Email Monitoring

D. Host Based SNMP Monitoring

Answer: A

Question: 5

A customer would like to configure NTP using Unisphere. What is the minimum polling time

allowed for NTP?

A. 30 minutes

B. 60 minutes

C. 15 minutes

D. 10 minutes

Answer: A

Question: 6

What communication protocol does Unisphere use?

A. SSL

B. SFTP

C. UDP

D. SSH

Answer: A

Question: 7

A customer has a CX4 series CLARiiON and is experiencing a problem with SP

A. Upon arrival

you notice that the SPA Fault LED is amber and flashing at a rate of four times a second.

What is the boot state of SPA?

A. POST Starting OS

B. OS Booted

C. Executing BIOS

D. FLARE Driver Complete

Answer: A

Question: 8

Refer to the exhibit.

What is the correct order of the management module components?

A. A-GbE Service LAN; B-GbE Management LAN; C-Service Port COM1; D-SPS Port COM2; ENMI

Button

B. A-GbE Management LAN; B-GbE Service LAN; C-Service Port COM1; D-SPS Port COM2; ENMI

Button

C. A-SPS Port COM2; B-NMI Button; C-Service Port COM1; D-GbE Service LAN; E-GbE

Management LAN

D. A-GbE Service LAN; B-GbE Management LAN; C-SPS Port COM2; D-Service Port COM1; EEMC

NMI Button

Answer: A

Question: 9

Which statement accurately describes DAE3P enclosures?

A. Supported on CX3 and CX4 series arrays

B. Support the 2 Gb/s LCC card

C. Contain 14 disk drives

D. Support FC, ATA, Flash drives, and SATA-II drives

Answer: A

Question: 10

How many front-end ports are required to provide failover between SPs for eight direct-attached

hosts on a CX4?

A. 16

B. 8

C. 4

D. 2

Answer: A

Question: 11

A customer has installed a new CX4 and is using ALUA SCSI communications with a Windows

2008 server and PowerPath.

The server is using two LUNs on the array and they are both owned by SP

A. Which statement

describes how I/O is handled when a host has two paths to each SP, and there are no faults in this

environment?

A. I/O will flow to the owning SP over the optimal paths.

B. I/O will flow to each SP and load balance all paths.

C. I/O will flow on only one path to each SP even if multiple paths are defined.

D. I/O flows to the owning SP and then will use the CMI bus for additional I/O.

Answer: A

Question: 12

What connectivity rules should be applied when configuring storage processor management ports

on a CX4?

A. Both ports must be on the same subnet.

B. Both ports must be connected via CAT 5 cabling.

C. Both ports must be connected via 10/100 Ethernet.

D. Both ports must be directly connected to the host.

Answer: A

Question: 13

Refer to the exhibit.

Which port has a fixed IP and subnet mask?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

Answer: A

Question: 14

Refer to the exhibit.

Which port is configured during array initialization?

A. A

B. B

C. C

D. D

E. E

Answer: B

Question: 15

A customer has requested onsite assistance because they are currently unable to communicate

with SP

A. You arrive onsite and connect to the GbE Service LAN. What IP address do you use to

connect to SPA?

A. 128.221.1.250

B. 192.168.1.250

C. 128.221.1.251

D. 192.168.1.251

Answer: A

Question: 16

What is the hard-coded Ethernet IP address of the SPB service port on a CX4?

A. 128.221.1.251

B. 128.122.2.251

C. 128.221.1.250

D. 128.122.2.250

Answer: A

Question: 17

What software is used to assign IP addresses when installing a new CLARiiON?

A. Unisphere Initialization Utility

B. Unisphere Server Utility

C. Unisphere Service Manager

D. Unisphere Client

Answer: A

Question: 18

What is used to identify the array when first starting the Unisphere Initialization Utility?

A. Serial number of the array

B. WWN seed of the SPE

C. IP address of the service port

D. Serial number of the management module

Answer: A

Question: 19

You are implementing Unisphere security on a CX4 CLARiiON with FLARE 30. The customer has

requested that all certificates be validated when naviseccli is used.

What level of certificate validation does EMC recommend be set for naviseccli?

A. Medium

B. High

C. Low

D. Ignore

Answer: A

Question: 20

What does a security scope of 1 represent when used with naviseccli?

A. Local

B. Replication

C. Global

D. LDAP

Answer: A

Question: 1

You are installing SAP HANA using hdblcmgui and want to ensure that the SAP Hana database is automatically started when the host is restarted.

How do you accomplish this?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. set the environment parameter ‘auto start = yes’ before you execute hdblcmgui

B. set the environment parameters ‘auto start = true’ before you execute hdblcmgui

C. Execute hdblcmgui and select ‘restart instance after machine reboot?’

D. execute the resident hdblcmgui and set the parameter to ‘autostart = 1’

Answer: D

Question: 2

A user is locked due to too many failed login attempts Which SQL commands can solve this problem?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. ALTER USER <username> DISABLE PASSWORD LIFETIME

B. ALTER USER <username> RESET CONNECT ATTEMPT

C. ALTER USER <username> FORCE PASSWORD CHANGE

D. ALTER USER <username> ACTIVE USER NOW

Answer: B

Question: 3

You want to measure the impact of a new workload on the memory usage of the SAP HANA services Which memory indicator would you reset?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. virtual memory

B. Peak used memory

C. Used memory

D. Resident memory

Answer: B

Question: 4

Which delivered role is mandatory for a system administrator in SAP HANA?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. CONTENT_ADMIN

B. IC MODELER

C. SYS_ADMIN

D. SAP_ALL

Answer: A

Question: 5

How can you remove add data backups both from the backup catalog and physically from the server?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. Select a backup on the backup catalog tab of the backup console and select delete older backups from the context menu.

B. execute the command backup.sh -id -cl from the operating system

C. execute the SQL statement DELETE from m_backup_catalog where backup_ID = 2 <backup_ID> from the SQL console

D. open a shell and delete all files under $(DIR_INSTANCE) backup data

Answer: A

Question: 6

What happens when an SAP Hana system is restarted?

There are 2 correct answers to this question

Response:

A. All row tables are loaded into the memory except the row table that are configured to be loaded on demand

B. column tables and column table attributes that were loaded before the restart reloaded into the memory asynchronously

C. tables and table attributes that are marked for preload are loaded into the memory synchronously

D. all row tables and row table attributes are loaded into the memory

Answer: CD

Question: 7

For one-step logon to the system on the PARMA host with instance number 01 as database user MONA with the password RED, which of the following command helps?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. hdbsql -n PARMA -i 1 -u MONA –p RED

B. hdbsql -n PARMA -p 1 -u MONA –i RED

C. hdbsql -i PARMA -n 1 -u MONA –p RED

D. hdbsql -p PARMA -i 1 -u MONA –n RED

Answer: A

Question: 8

Which monitoring view provides information on the analytic privileges that apply to a view and to authorized users?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. ACCESSIBLE_VIEWS

B. EFFECTIVE_PRIVILEGES

C. GRANTED_PRIVILEGES

D. EFFECTIVE_STRUCTURED_PRIVILEGES

Answer: D

Question: 9

For the most part, CDS works in SAP HANA XS advanced deployment infrastructure (HDI) just like it does in the SAP HANA XS classic Repository. Which of the following annotations are not supported in SAP HANA XS advanced HDI?

There are 3 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. @Schema

B. @SearchIndex

C. @GenerateTableType

D. @WithStructuredPrivilegePost

E. @nokeyStructured

Answer: ABC

Question: 10

Trace files are used to troubleshoot problems in the SAP HANA database, which of the following Trace types helps to generate Trace files through its activation?

There are 3 correct answers to this question

Response:

A. SQL trace

B. Database trace

C. Performance trace

D. Security trace

E. System trace

Answer: ABC

Question: 11

Which of the following must be installed during the installation of SAP Landscape Transformation (SLT)?

There are 2 correct answers to this question.

Response:

A. SAP NetWeaver 7.02 or higher

B. DMIS add-on to the SAP source system

C. SAP HANADB libraries to the source system

D. Java stack for the SLT Server

Answer: AB

Question: 1

Which type of port would have root guard enabled on it？

A. a designated port

B. an alternate port

C. a blocked port

D. a root port

Answer: A

Question: 2

Which statement about Cisco Express Forwarding is true？

A. The FIB tables resides on the route processor and the adjacency table resides on the line cards

when Cisco Express Forwarding is enabled.

B. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the adjacency table.

C. The FIB table and the adjacency table reside on the line cards when Cisco Express

Forwarding is enabled.

D. Layer 2 next-hop address information is maintained in the FIB table.

Answer: A

Question: 3

Which feature can you implement to most efficiently protect customer traffic in a rate-limited

WAN Ethernet service ？

A. IntServ with RSVP

B. DiffServ

C. Q-in-Q

D. The IPsec VTI qos pre-classify command

E. HCBWFQ

Answer: B

Question: 4

Which statement is true about conditional advertisements?

A. Conditional advertisements create routes when a predefined condition is met.

B. Conditional advertisements create routes when a predefined condition is not met.

C. Conditional advertisements delete routes when a predefined condition is met.

D. Conditional advertisements create routes and withhold them until a predefined condition is met.

E. Conditional advertisements do not create routes, they only withhold them until a predefined condition is met.

Answer: E

Question: 5

Which option describes how a router responds if LSA throttling is configured and it receives the identical LSA before the interval is set?

A. The LSA is added to the OSPF database and a notification is sent to the sending router to slowdown its LSA packet updates.

B. The LSA is added to the OSPF database.

C. The LSA is ignored.

D. The LSA is ignored and a notification is sent to the sending router to slow down its LSA packet Updates.

Answer: C

Question: 6

Which data plane protocol does EIGRP Over the Top use？

A. GRE

B. MPLS

C. LISP

D. IP-in-IP

Answer: C

Question: 7

Which PIM mode can forward traffic by using only (*.G) routing table entries?

A. Space-dese mode

B. Bidirectional mode

C. Deuce mode

D. Sparse mode

Answer: B

Question: 8

Which TCP feature allows a client to request a specific packet that was lost?

A. Selective acknowledge

B. Flow control

C. Fast recovery

D. Sliding window

Answer: A

Question: 9

Which TCP feature allows a client to request a specific packet that was lost?

A. Flow control

B. Sliding window

C. Fast recovery

D. Selective acknowedgment

Answer: D

Question: 10

Which option is the origin code when a route is redistributed into BGP?

A. IGP

B. EGP

C. External

D. Incomplete

E. Unknown

Answer: D

Question: 11

When you deploy DMVPN,what is the purpose of the command crypto isakmp key ciscotest address 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0?

A. It is configured on the hub and spoke routers to establish peering.

B. It is configured on the hub to sent the pre-shared key for the spoke routers

C. It is configured on the Internet PE routers to allow traffic to traverse the ISP core

D. It is configured on the spokes to indicate the hub router.

Answer: B

Question: 12

Which statement is true about trunking?

A. DTP only supports autonegotiation on 802.1q and does not support autonegotiation for ISL

B. Cisco switches that run PVST+ do not transmit BPDUS on nonnative VLANs when using a

C. dot1q trunk.

D. DTP os a point-to-point protocol.

E. When removing VLAN 1 from a trunk,management traffic such as CDP is no longer passed in that VLAN.

Answer: C

Question: 13

Which command can you enter on an interface so that the interface will notify the sender of a

packet that the path is sub-optimal?

A. Ipnhrp cost 65535

B. Ipnhrp redirect

C. Ipnhrp set-unique-bit

D. Ipnhrp record

E. Ipnhrp shortcut

Answer: B

Question: 14

Which technology can be used to prevent flooding of ipv6 multicast traffic on a switch?

A. MLD filtering

B. IGMP snooping

C. MLD snooping

D. IGMP filtering

Answer: C

Question: 15

Which statement about a type 4 LSA in OSPF is true?

A. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR,that is flooded throughout the AS,and that describes a route to the ASBR.

B. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR,that is flooded throughout the AS,and that describes a route to the ABR.

C. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR,that is flooded throughout the AS,and that describes a route to the ASBR.

D. It is an LSA that is originated by an ABR,that is flooded throughout the area,and that describes a route to the ASBR.

E. It is an LSA that is originated by an ASBR,that is flooded throughout the area,and that describes a route to the ASBR.

Answer: D

Question: 16

What is the main function of VRF-lite?

A. To segreagate multiple routing tables on a single device.

B. To connect different autonomous systems together to share routes.

C. To allow device to use lables to make layer 2 path decisions.

D. To route IPv6 traffic across an IPv4 backbone.

Answer: A

Question: 17

Which three factors does Cisco PFR use to calculate the best exit path?(Choose three)

A. Reachability

B. Delay

C. Quality of service

D. Packet size

E. Adminstrative distance

F. Loss

Answer: ABF

Question: 18

Which ISAKMP feature can protect a GDOI from a hacker using a network sniffer while a security association is established?

A. An ISAKMP phase 1 security association

B. An ISAKMP phase 2 security association

C. The Proof of Possession(POP)

D. A ISAKMP phase 2 GROUPKEY-PUSH exchange

E. An ISAKMP phase 2 GROUPKEY-PULL exchange

Answer: A

Case Study: 1

Relecloud

General Overview

Relecloud is a social media company that processes hundreds of millions of social media posts per day and sells advertisements to several hundred companies.

Relecloud has a Microsoft SQL Server database named DB1 that stores information about the advertisers. DB1 is hosted on a Microsoft Azure virtual machine.

Physical locations

Relecloud has two main offices. The offices we located in San Francisco and New York City.

The offices connected to each other by using a site-to-site VPN. Each office connects directly to the Internet.

Business model

Relecloud modifies the pricing of its advertisements based on trending topics. Topics are considered to be trending if they generate many mentions in a specific country during a 15-minute time frame. The highest trending topics generate the highest advertising revenue.

CTO statement

Relecloud wants to deliver reports lo the advertisers by using Microsoft Power BI. The reports will provide real-time data on trending topics, current advertising rates, and advertising costs for a given month.

Relecloud will analyze the trending topics data, and then store the data in a new data warehouse for ad-hoc analysis. The data warehouse is expected to grow at a rate of 1 GB per hour or 8.7 terabytes (TB) per year. The data will be retained for five years for the purpose of long term trending.

Requirements

Business goals

Management at Relecloud must be able to view which topics are trending to adjust advertising rates in near real-time.

Planned changes

Relecloud plans to implement a new streaming analytics platform that will report on trending topics. Relecloud plans to implement a data warehouse named DB2.

General technical requirements

Relecloud identifies the following technical requirements:

Social media data must be analyzed to identify trending topics in real time.
The use of Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS) platforms must minimized, whenever possible.
The real-time solution used to analyze the social media data must support selling up and down without service interruption.

Technical requirements for advertisers

Relecloud identifies the following technical requirements for the advertisers

The advertisers must be able to see only their own data in the Power BI reports.
The advertisers must authenticate to Power BI by using Azure Active Directory (Azure AD) credentials.
The advertisers must be able to leverage existing Transact-SQL language knowledge when developing the real-time streaming solution.
Members of the internal advertising sales team at Relecloud must be able to see only the sales data of the advertisers to which they are assigned.
The Internal Relecloud advertising sales team must be prevented from inserting, updating, and deleting rows for the advertisers to which they are not assigned.
The internal Relecloud advertising sales team must be able to use a text file to update the list of advertisers, and then to upload the file to Azure Blob storage.

DB1 requirements

Relecloud identifies the following requirements for DB1:

Data generated by the streaming analytics platform must be stored in DB1.
The user names of the advertisers must be mapped to CustomerID in a table named Table2.
The advertisers in DB1 must be stored in a table named Table1 and must be refreshed nightly.
The user names of the employees at Relecloud must be mapped to EmployeeID in a table named Table3.

DB2 requirements

Relecloud identifies the following requirements for DB2:

DB2 must have minimal storage costs.
DB2 must run load processes in parallel.
DB2 must support massive parallel processing.
DB2 must be able to store more than 40 TB of data.
DB2 must support scaling up and down, as required.
Data from DB1 must be archived in DB2 for long-term storage.
All of the reports that are executed from DB2 must use aggregation.
Users must be able to pause DB2 when the data warehouse is not in use.
Users must be able to view previous versions of the data in DB2 by using aggregates.

ETL requirements

Relecloud identifies the following requirements for extract, transformation, and load (ETL):

Data movement between DB1 and DB2 must occur each hour.
An email alert must be generated when a failure of any type occurs during ETL processing.

rls_table1

You execute the following code for a table named rls_table1.

dbo.table1

You use the following code to create Table1.

Streaming data

The following is a sample of the Streaming data.

User Country Topic Time

user1 USA Topic1 2017-01-01T00:00:01.0000000Z

user1 USA Topic3 2017-01-01T00:02:01.0000000Z

user2 Canada Topic2 2017-01-01T00:01:11.0000000Z

user3 India Topic1 2017-01-01T00:03:14.0000000Z

Question: 1

Which technology should you recommend to meet the technical requirement for analyzing the social media data?

A. Azure Stream Analytics

B. Azure Data Lake Analytics

C. Azure Machine Learning

D. Azure HDInsight Storm clusters

Answer: A

Question: 2

DRAG DROP

You need to implement a solution that meets the data refresh requirement tor DB1.

Which three actions should you perform in sequence? To answer, move the appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Answer:

Question: 3

DRAG DROP

You need to create a query that identifies the trending topics.

How should you complete the query? To answer, drag the appropriate values to the correct targets. Each value may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

Answer:

Question: 4

HOTSPOT

You implement DB2.

You need to configure the tables in DB2 to host the data from DB1. The solution must meet the requirements for DB2.

Which type of table and history table storage should you use for the table? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one pint.

Answer:

Question: 1

How can material components be assigned to network activities?

Note: There are three (3) correct answers to this question.

A. By assigning them manually

B. Using the bill of materials transfer

C. Using assigned sales orders

D. Using ProMan

E. Using the Internet-based catalog

Answer: ABE

Question: 2

You want to confirm working hours to a WBS element using Cross Application Time Sheet (CATS). However, once you enter the WBS element and the working hours in CATS you receive an error message. What could be the reason?

Please choose the correct answer.

A. The system status created is active.

B. The system status master data locked is activate.

C. You are not the responsible person for that WBS element.

D. The confirmation exceeds the budget assigned to the WBS.

Answer: A

Question: 3

You want to extrapolate basic dates from lower to higher-level WBS elements. Which planning method do you choose?

Please choose the correct answer.

A. Bottom-up

B. Strict bottom-up

C. Free planning

D. Top-down

Answer: A

Question: 4

You work with Project Builder (CJ20N) and want to use standard templates in your project structure. Which standard templates can you use?

Please choose the correct answer.

A. Standard time scheduling

B. Standard Bill of Material (BOM)

C. Standard cost planning

D. Standard Milestones

Answer: D

Question: 5

Your projects consist of WBS elements, several networks, and subnetworks. What are the advantages of new overall network scheduling (CN24N) instead of the old overall network scheduling (CN24)?

Note: There are three (3) correct answers to this question.

A. Scheduling of subnetworks and subordinate internal orders

B. Introduction of a configurable level concept for the targeted selection of subnetworks

C. Scheduling that takes available capacities and material availability into account

D. Improve performance through the targeted selection of subnetworks to be scheduled.

E. Detailed subnetwork monitor

Answer: BDE

Question: 1

Which of the following Succession Planning permission only work with the position level target

population for MDF positions?

There are 3 correct answers to this question

Response:

A. Succession Approval

B. Succession Planning

C. Succession Organization chart

D. Succession Management and Matrix Reports

E. Talent Search

Answer: A,B,D

Question: 2

Which of the following features are specially used in the Succession Org Chart v12and not in the

original Succession Org Chart?

There are 3 correct answers to this question

Response:

A. It displays on the Succession Talent Card

B. Full Career Development planning data is displayed

C. Employee Photos are included on the chart

D. Talent Flag information is displayed

E. Multi Incumbent positions with Employee Central are supported

Answer: A,D,E

Question: 3

Your customer wants to change the hierarchy of a MDF position with a manual operation as

shown in the screenshot. Where must you change this admin tools?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. Employee Files -> Configure Employee Files

B. Employee Files -> Manage Data

C. Company Settings -> Configure Object Definitions

D. Succession -> Position Management

Answer: B

Question: 4

Your customer users role person nominations. What happens to an incumbent's successors

when the job code of the incumbent Changes?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. The successors are moved to a peer of the incumbent who has the old job code.

B. The successors are moved into a pool of successors for the incumbent's old job code.

C. The successors are removed from the incumbent.

D. The successors stay with the incumbent.

Answer: C

Question: 5

Which nomination method is recommended if your customer does NOT want to maintain

position management within Succession?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. Position

B. Role-Person

C. Talent Search

D. MDF Position

Answer: B

Question: 6

You use the Import Extended User Information feature within Admin Tools to ad background

How can you verify the Success of the Import?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. Check the email that is sent you after the import process is completed

B. Check Admin Tools -> Employee Files -> Monitor Job

C. Check Provisioning -> Company Settings.

D. Check Provisioning -> Succession Management.

Answer: B

Question: 7

For which data import can you select the 'import by incrementally adding data' option if you

use 'import Extended User information' ?

There are 2 correct answers to this question

Response:

A. User Information

B. Background Information

C. Personal Information

D. Trend Information

Answer: B,D

Question: 8

What information is included in the Trend Data Import template?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. Certification history

B. Risk of loss

C. Performance rating history

D. Education history

Answer: C

Question: 9

Which of the following tasks must you perform to make a standard element visible in Employee

Profile?

There are 2 correct answers to the question

Response:

A. Grant view permissions to the standard element.

B. Add the standard element to the <view template> <view template id="TalentSearch"> in the

Succession Data Model.

C. Add the standard element to XML within the Org Chard Configuration.

D. Add the standard element to a portlet on the employee profile.

Answer: A,D

Question: 10

You use the MDF position Nomination Method. In miscellaneous permissions. Which Options can you select?

There are 3 correct answers to this question

Response:

A. Write

B. Edit

C. Insert

D. Create

E. Correct

Answer: C,D,E

Question: 11

What is the other name for Role-Person Nomination Method?

Please choose the correct answer.

Response:

A. Legacy Position

B. Position

C. Incumbent

D. MDF Position

Answer: C

Question: 1

Refer to the exhibit.

Based on this FIB table, which statement is correct?

A. There is no default gateway.

B. The IP address of the router on FastEthernet is 209.168.201.1.

C. The gateway of last resort is 192.168.201.1.

D. The router will listen for all multicast traffic.

Answer: C

Question: 2

Refer to the exhibit.

A network administrator checks this adjacency table on a router. What is a possible cause for the incomplete marking?

A. incomplete ARP information

B. incorrect ACL

C. dynamic routing protocol failure

D. serial link congestion

Answer: A

Question: 3

A network engineer notices that transmission rates of senders of TCP traffic sharply increase and decrease simultaneously during periods of congestion. Which condition causes this?

A. global synchronization

B. tail drop

C. random early detection

D. queue management algorithm

Answer: A

Question: 4

Which three problems result from application mixing of UDP and TCP streams within a network with no QoS? (Choose three.)

A. starvation

B. jitter

C. latency

D. windowing

E. lower throughput

Answer: A, C, E

Question: 5

Which method allows IPv4 and IPv6 to work together without requiring both to be used for a single connection during the migration process?

A. dual-stack method

B. 6to4 tunneling

C. GRE tunneling

D. NAT-PT

Answer: A

Question: 6

Which statement about the use of tunneling to migrate to IPv6 is true?

A. Tunneling is less secure than dual stack or translation.

B. Tunneling is more difficult to configure than dual stack or translation.

C. Tunneling does not enable users of the new protocol to communicate with users of the old protocol without dual-stack hosts.

D. Tunneling destinations are manually determined by the IPv4 address in the low-order 32 bits of IPv4-compatible IPv6 addresses.

Answer: C

Question: 7

A network administrator executes the command clear ip route. Which two tables does this command clear and rebuild? (Choose two.)

A. IP routing

B. FIB

C. ARP cache

D. MAC address table

E. Cisco Express Forwarding table

F. topology table

Answer: A, B

Question: 8

Which switching method is used when entries are present in the output of the command show ip cache?

A. fast switching

B. process switching

C. Cisco Express Forwarding switching

D. cut-through packet switching

Answer: A

Question: 9

Which two actions must you perform to enable and use window scaling on a router? (Choose two.)

A. Execute the command ip tcp window-size 65536.

B. Set window scaling to be used on the remote host.

C. Execute the command ip tcp queuemax.

D. Set TCP options to "enabled" on the remote host.

E. Execute the command ip tcp adjust-mss.

Answer: A, B

Question: 10

Which three TCP enhancements can be used with TCP selective acknowledgments? (Choose three.)

A. header compression

B. explicit congestion notification

C. keepalive

D. time stamps

E. TCP path discovery

F. MTU window

Answer: B, C, D

Question: 11

A network administrator uses IP SLA to measure UDP performance and notices that packets on one router have a higher one-way delay compared to the opposite direction. Which UDP characteristic does this scenario describe?

A. latency

B. starvation

C. connectionless communication

D. nonsequencing unordered packets

E. jitter

Answer: A

Question: 12

Under which condition does UDP dominance occur?

A. when TCP traffic is in the same class as UDP

B. when UDP flows are assigned a lower priority queue

C. when WRED is enabled

D. when ACLs are in place to block TCP traffic

Answer: A

Question: 13

Prior to enabling PPPoE in a virtual private dialup network group, which task must be completed?

A. Disable CDP on the interface.

B. Execute the vpdn enable command.

C. Execute the no switchport command.

D. Enable QoS FIFO for PPPoE support.

Answer: B

Question: 14

A network engineer has been asked to ensure that the PPPoE connection is established and authenticated using an encrypted password. Which technology, in combination with PPPoE, can be used for authentication in this manner?

A. PAP

B. dot1x

C. IPsec

D. CHAP

E. ESP

Answer: D

Question: 15

A corporate policy requires PPPoE to be enabled and to maintain a connection with the ISP, even if no interesting traffic exists. Which feature can be used to accomplish this task?

A. TCP Adjust

B. Dialer Persistent

C. PPPoE Groups

D. half-bridging

E. Peer Neighbor Route

Answer: B

Question: 16

Which PPP authentication method sends authentication information in clear text?

A. MS CHAP

B. CDPCP

C. CHAP

D. PAP

Answer: D

Question: 17

Which protocol uses dynamic address mapping to request the next-hop protocol address for a specific connection?

A. Frame Relay inverse ARP

B. static DLCI mapping

C. Frame Relay broadcast queue

D. dynamic DLCI mapping

Answer: A

Question: 18

Which statement is true about the PPP Session Phase of PPPoE?

A. PPP options are negotiated and authentication is not performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 3 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.

B. PPP options are not negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 4 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.

C. PPP options are automatically enabled and authorization is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be encrypted over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.

D. PPP options are negotiated and authentication is performed. Once the link setup is completed, PPPoE functions as a Layer 2 encapsulation method that allows data to be transferred over the PPP link within PPPoE headers.

Answer: D

Question: 19

PPPoE is composed of which two phases?

A. Active Authentication Phase and PPP Session Phase

B. Passive Discovery Phase and PPP Session Phase

C. Active Authorization Phase and PPP Session Phase

D. Active Discovery Phase and PPP Session Phase

Answer: D

Question: 20

Refer to the exhibit.

Which one statement is true?

A. Traffic from the 172.16.0.0/16 network will be blocked by the ACL.

B. The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be advertised by Router B because the network statement for the 10.0.0.0/8 network is missing from Router B.

C. The 10.0.0.0/8 network will not be in the routing table on Router B.

D. Users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network can successfully ping users on the 192.168.5.0/24 network, but users on the 192.168.5.0/24 cannot successfully ping users on the 10.0.0.0/8 network.

E. Router B will not advertise the 10.0.0.0/8 network because it is blocked by the ACL.

Answer: E

Case Study: 1

Contoso, Ltd

General Overview

Contoso, Ltd., is a manufacturing company that has 4,000 employees. The company has a sales department, a marketing department, a research department, and a human resources department.

Physical Locations

The company has four offices. The offices are configured as shown in the following table.

The New York office contains the main data center. Communications for all of the offices is routed through the New York office.

All telephone calls from the Los Angeles office and the Miami office are routed through a public switched telephone network (PSTN) gateway in the New York office.

All offices connect to each other by using a wide area network (WAN) link. Each office connects directly to the Internet.

Existing Environment

Active Directory Environment

The company has an Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) forest named contoso.com. The forest contains a single domain. All domain controllers run Windows Server 2008 R2.

Each office contains two domain controllers. Each office is configured as an AD DS site.

Each office contains DHCP servers that run on 32-bit servers.

Skype for Business Server Environment

The company has nine servers. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

The company uses a SIP domain of contoso.com. The voice infrastructure is configured as shown in the following table.

All users are enabled for Enterprise Voice.

The company also contains two Edge Servers that have Skype for Business Server 2015 deployed. The servers are configured as shown in the following table.

The Miami office has a dial plan. The dial plan is configured as shown in the following table.

The Skype for Business Server 2015 configuration has five routes. Location-based routing is not configured. The routes are configured as shown in the following table.

The PSTN usage for the users in the Los Angeles office is configured as shown in the following table.

Problem Statements

The company identifies the following issues with the current infrastructure:

Los Angeles users report that the audio quality during calls to the New York office is poor and that the calls often disconnect.

Users in the Miami office report that when their WAN link fails, they cannot establish calls to the PSTN.

The Miami users report that they cannot call the Los Angeles users by using a five-digit internal phone number.

Requirements

Planned Changes

The company plans to implement the following changes:

Provide voice resiliency in all of the offices if a WAN link fails.

Implement Call Pack

Implement an unassigned number range that has a voice announcement.

Add an additional auto attendant.

Implement a gateway in the Los Angeles office that uses the local PSTN.

Migrate several users to Skype for Business Online. The users will use instant messaging (IM) with Skype for Business users only. Client computers will use automatic configuration and open federation. The migrated users will use a SIP domain of cloud.contoso.com.

Provide a backup route for each office if a gateway fails.

Provide each office with access to the local PSTN.

Technical Requirements

The company identifies the following technical requirements:

Enable five-digit internal dialing that uses the site code and the last four digits of the phone number range.

Configure the New York gateway as the backup route for the local gateway in each office.

Business Requirements

Changes to the infrastructure must minimize the number of new servers deployed.

Question: 1

HOTSPOT

You need to ensure that the Miami users can use a five-digit extension when they call the Los Angeles users.

What should you include in the normalization rule? To answer, configure the appropriate match pattern and translation pattern in the dialog box in the answer area.

Answer:

Question: 2

DRAG DROP

You need to configure the unassigned numbers range to support the planned changes.

Which four actions should you perform?

To answer, move the four appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Answer:

Question: 3

You collect the following call statistics for users in Los Angeles:

Peak call concurrency is 25 percent.

Fifty percent of all placed calls are routed to the public switched telephone network (PSTN)

Thirty percent of all placed calls are internal calls to users in the other offices.

Twenty percent of all placed calls are conference calls.

The average bandwidth for peer-to-peer calls is 65 kilobits per second (Kbps).

The average bandwidth used for conference calls is 100 Kbps.

You need to allocate the minimum amount of bandwidth required on the wide area network (WAN) link for the planned implementation of the voice gateway in the Los Angeles office. All calls to the PSTN will be routed through the local voice gateway in the Los Angeles office.

How much bandwidth in megabits per second (Mbps) should you allocate?

A. None of These

B. 3.95 Mbps

C. 10.00 Mbps

D. 2.25 Mbps

Answer: A

Question: 4

DRAG DROP

You need to create the DHCP options required for Skype for Business Phone Edition devices.

Which three actions should you perform? To answer, move the three appropriate actions from the list of actions to the answer area and arrange them in the correct order.

Answer:

Question: 1

Which user is used by SAP work processes to connect to racle using the PS$-connect mechanism in UNIX?

Please choose the correct answer.

A. SYSTEM

B. SYSDBA

C. RA<SID>

D. <SID>ADM

Answer: D

Question: 2

You import a transport request using the Transport Management System. When the import finishes, the transport request disappears from the import queue although it caused a return code 8. What is the most likely reason?

Please choose the correct answer.

A. The transport strategy is set to ‘queue-controlled single transports’.

B. Quality assurance is set to ‘Delivery after confirmation’.

C. Quality assurance is deactivated.

D. The transport strategy is set to ‘queue-controlled mass transports’.

Answer: D

Question: 3

Which information is provided by the Computing Center Management System (CCMS) Alert Monitoring tool for an racle database?

Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. Database statistics

B. Database health

C. Database performance

D. Database sessions

Answer: BC

Question: 4

How can you increase the number of batch work processes on a Primary Application Server Instance (PAS) or on an Additional Application Server Instance of an AS ABAP-based system without restarting it?

Please choose the correct answer.

A. Increase the profile parameter rdisp/wp_no_btc.

B. Increase the dynamic profile parameter rdisp/btctime.

C. Adjust the relevant operation mode.

D. Start a reserved work process.

Answer: C

Question: 5

During the update of AS ABAP-based SAP systems, the SAP Software Update Manager (SUM) executes a SPAM version check. Based on the result of this check, which options are offered?

Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. Import Modification Adjustment Transport

B. Switch to expert mode

C. Skip SPAM update

D. Search for newer SPAM version in „…EPS\in“-directory

Answer: CD

Question: 1

What is the correct hierarchy of the SAP HANA component model?

Please choose the correct answer.

A. Product -> Package -> Delivery Unit -> Object

B. Package -> Product -> Delivery Unit -> Object

C. Delivery Unit -> Product -> Package -> Object

D. Product -> Delivery Unit -> Package -> Object

Answer: D

Question: 2

You are using SAP Solution Manager to troubleshoot your SAP HANA database. What can you analyze?

Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. Memory usage

B. Linux system logs

C. Locked users

D. Alert status

E. Services availability

Answer: ADE

Question: 3

Your customer is performing a full data backup every week and a delta backup daily. You need to implement the shortest recovery method for an SAP HANA database. Which recovery order is the fastest?

Please choose the correct answer.

A. 1. Full data backup

2. Log backup

3. Incremental backup

B. 1. Full data backup

2. Incremental backup

3. Log backup

C. 1. Full data backup

2. Differential backup

3. Log backup

D. 1. Full data backup

2. Log backup

3. Differential backup

Answer: C

Question: 4

Which of the following tools can you use to create and manage SAP HANA database users?

Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. SAP Solution Manager

B. SAP Identity Management

C. SAP Web IDE

D. Microsoft Active Directory

Answer: BC

Question: 5

You are planning a batch installation for a scale-out system. Which settings do you need to make in the configuration file?

Note: There are 2 correct answers to this question.

A. The instances on all hosts must use an identical instance number.

B. The user ID of the <sid>adm user must be identical on all hosts.

C. The max_mem parameter must be specified for the sum of all hosts

D. The hostname specified must be identical on all hosts.

Answer: AB

Question: 1

Which of the following are characteristics of an organizational unit in Deposits Management?

Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. Contract management bank

B. Business area

C. Bank posting area

D. Currency

E. Calendar

Answer: ACE

Question: 2

What type of account do you use to manage open items in the open item management system?

Please choose the correct answer.

A. Loan account

B. Clearing account

C. Current account

D. Contract account

Answer: D

Question: 3

Which of the following input parameters can be used when you define posting control rules?

Note: There are 3 correct answers to this question.

A. Product category

B. Posting priority

C. Error type

D. Payment item type

E. Transaction type group

Answer: CDE

Question: 4

Which of the following is a required configuration for payment orders?

Please choose the correct answer.

A. Assign offsetting transaction types to transaction types.

B. Assign offsetting transaction types to error types.

C. Assign offsetting transaction types to payment item types.

D. Assign transaction types to transaction type groups.

Answer: A

Question: 5

In Customizing, which combination of traffic light and padlock do you have to specify to make product attributes mandatory at contract level?

Please choose the correct answer.

A. Red traffic light and closed padlock

B. Red traffic light and open padlock

C. Green traffic light and open padlock

D. Green traffic light and closed padlock

Answer: D

Question: 1

What output profiles can you confine for report event notifications? (Choose two)

A. SMS

B. Forward to another FortiAnaiyzer device

C. Upload to a server

D. Email

Answer: CD

Question: 2

Which statements are true regarding content archiving, also known as Data Leak Prevention (DLP) archiving? (Choose two)

A. Allows full and summary archiving

B. It is configured globally for all policies.

C. The default behavior is to do full archiving.

D. The DLP engine examines email, FTP, NNTP, and web traffic.

Answer: AD

Question: 3

Given the Antivirus and IPS update service is enabled, and the FortiGuard settings as shown in the exhibit. The desired behavior is for managed devices to use public servers for these updates should FortiManager become unreachable, which is not the case with the current configuration. What two actions are necessary to correct this? (Choose two)

A. Change the server override mode from strict to loose.

B. Change the pat from 8890 to 443 n the Use Override Server Address for FortiGate/FortiMail settings.

C. Uncheck the option Use Override Server Address for FortiGate/FortiMail.

D. Change the IP address to a pubic FDS server and pat to 443 n the Use Override Server Address for FortiGate/FortiMail settings.

Answer: AC

Question: 4

What remote authentication servers can you configure to validate your FortiAnalyzer administrator logons? (Choose three)

A. RADIUS

B. Local

C. LDAP

D. PKI

E. TACACS+

Answer: ACE

Question: 5

Which two statements are correct regarding synchronization between primary and secondary devices in a FortManager HA duster? (Choose two)

A. Al device configurations ncbdng global databases are synchrorized in the HA cluster,

B. FortiGuard databases are downloaded separately by each cluster device.

C. FortiGuard databases are downloaded by the primary FortManager device and then synchronized with al secondary devices.

D. Local logs and log configuration settings are synchronized in the HA cluster.

Answer: AB

Question: 6

Workflow mode introduces which new permissions for Super_Admin admhstrative users?

A. Self-approval, Approval, Reject

B. Self-disapproval, Approval, Accept

C. Approval, Self-approval, Change Notification

D. Change Notification, Self-disapproval, Submit

Answer: C

Question: 7

Which two statements are correct regarding header and footer policies? (Choose two)

A. Header and footer policies can only be created h the root ADOM.

B. Header and footer policies can only be created in the global ADOM.

C. Header and footer policies are created in policy packages and assigned to ADOM policy packages.

D. Header and footer policies can be modified h the assigned ADOM policy package.

Answer: BC

Question: 8

What two statements are correct regarding administrative users and accounts? (Choose two)

A. Administrative user accounts can exist locally or remotely.

B. Administrative user login information is available to all administrators through the Web-based

C. Administrative users must be assigned an administrative profile.

D. Administrative user access is restricted by administrative profiles only.

Answer: AC

Question: 9

When statement correct compares FortiManager physical and virtual appliances?

A. Physical and virtual FortiManger appliances may mange unlimited devices and have unrestricted storage.

B. Physical and virtual FortiManger appliances use licenses to increase managed device and storage capacity limits.

C. Physical and virtual FortiManger appliances have unrestricted daily logging rate.

D. Physical and virtual FortiManger appliances use model types and licenses respectively, to differentiate managed device and storage capacity limits.

Answer: D

Question: 10

What s the purpose of locking an ADOM revision?

A. To prevent further changes from Device Manager,

B. To disable revision history.

C. To prevent auto deletion.

D. To lock the Policy and Objects tab.

Answer: C

Question: 11

Which two statements describe a “modified” device settings’ status in the Configuration and Installation Status widget of a managed FortiGate device?

A. Configuration changes were made directly on the managed device,

B. Configuration changes were made from Device Imager for a managed FortiGate e device.

C. Confutation changes were instated to a managed FortiGate device.

D. Confutation changes in Device Manager no longer math the latest revision in the device’s revision history.

Answer: B

Question: 12

What effect do administrative domains (ADCMs) have on report settings? (Choose two)

A. Hone. ADOMs cannot be used with reports.

B. Reports must be configured with (her own ADOM.

C. Chart Library, Macro Library, Dataset Library, and Output Profile become ADOM- specific.

D. Dataset Library becomes global for al ADOMs.

Answer: BC

Question: 13

What statements are true regarding disk log quota? (Choose two)

A. The FortiAnalyzer stops logging once the disk log quota is met.

B. The FortiAnalyzer automatically sets the disk log quota based on the device.

C. The FortiAnalyzer can overwrite the oldest logs or stop logging once the disk log quota is met.

D. The FortiAnalyzer disk log quota is configurable, but has a minimum o 100mb a maximum based on the reserved system space.

Answer: CD

Question: 14

Which ports are commonly used by FortWanager? (Choose two)

A. TCP 541 for remote management of a ForUGate unit.

B. TCP 5199 HA heartbeat or synchronization (FortMaTager HA cluster).

C. TCP 703 HA heartbeat or synchronization (FortiManager HA duster).

D. TCP 514 for remote management of a FortiGate urat.

Answer: AB

Question: 15

What statements are true regarding FortiAnalyzer 's treatment of high availability (HA) dusters? (Choose two)

A. FortiAnalyzer distinguishes different devices by their serial number.

B. FortiAnalyzer receives logs from d devices in a duster.

C. FortiAnalyzer receives bgs only from the primary device in the cluster.

D. FortiAnalyzer only needs to know (he serial number of the primary device in the cluster-it automaticaly discovers the other devices.

Answer: AB

Question: 16

If RAID isn’t supported, what are other types of backup mechanisms (ie.methods to preserve your log data in the event of disk failure, deletion, or corruption?(Choose three)

A. Backing up logs through the Web-based manager or CLI.

B. Forwarding logs a syslog server.

C. Uplaoding logs to an FTP, SFTP, or SCP server.

D. Archiving logs.

E. Enabling full archiving.

Answer: ABC

Question: 17

Which statement correctly names the Administrative Domains modes supported on FortiManager?

A. Normal and Analyzer

B. Backup and Analyzer

C. Normal, Backup, and Collector

D. Normal and Backup,

Answer: D

Question: 18

Which tabs are available on the FortiManger Web-based manager? (Choose two)

A. Device Manager

B. Policy & Objects

C. FortiGate

D. Database

Answer: AB

Question: 19

What are the operating modes of FortiAnalyzer? (Choose two)

A. Standalone

B. Manager

C. Analyzer

D. Collector

Answer: CD

Question: 20

What are three different methods you can employ to send event notifications when an event occurs that matches a configured that matches a configured event handler?

A. Email

B. SMS

C. SNMP

D. IM

E. Syslog

Answer: ACE

Question: 21

What s 'hot swapping'?

A. Hot swapping means administrators can confine FortiAnalyzer to write to all hard device in order to make the array fault tolerant.

B. Hot swapping means administrators can replace a failed disk on devices that support software RAID while the device is still running.

C. Hot swapping means administrators can ensue the parity data of a redundant drive is valid while the device is still running.

D. Hot swapping means administrators can replace a fated d* on devices that support hardware RAID while the device is still running.

Answer: D

Question: 22

Refer to the exhibit. What does the clock icon denote beside the Bandwidth and Application Report.

A. It is a custom report.

B. It is an imparted report from either a different FortiAnalyzer device or a different (but supported) ADOM.

C. It is h the process of generating.

D. It is a scheduled report.

Answer: D

Question: 1

Your company is using basic budgeting and is planning to configure budget control.

You need to identify the additional configuration that is needed.

Which three components will already be configured as s part of the basic Budgeting setup? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. budget models

B. budget exchange rates

C. over budget permissions

D. budget cycles

E. documents and journals

Answer: CDE

Question: 2

You are setting up the budgeting module for your employer and are given a list of budget codes needed in the system.

You want to create a "Preliminary" budget code but are unable to select it on the "budget Codes" form.

Which configuration key enables "Preliminary" and "Apportionments" budget types?

A. General Ledger – advanced II configuration key

B. Budget control configuration key

C. General Ledger configuration key

D. Public Sector configuration key

Answer: A

Question: 3

You decide that department managers must submit budget plans to you each quarter.

You need to use the budget planning template wizard to generate a budget planning template that each department submit to you.

What are three prerequisites for creating a template for budget plan worksheets? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. Create a budget plan and review its information by using a worksheet template.

B. Decide which matrix fields to creat.

C. Select the worksheet template to use for the budget planning process.

D. Decide which fields to use for the header.

E Decide which columns to include on the worksheet.

Answer: ABD

Question: 4

You need all budget transfers to use a workflow except the specific members of the budget transfer rules.

When creating a budget transfer rule, what information is used to define when transfers are allowed?

A. the dimensions on the transfer

B. the amount of the transfer

C. the date of the transfer

D. the employee requesting the transfer

Answer: C

Question: 5

A. Select only “MainAccount” and “Department” as budgeting dimensions.

B. Select the main accounts for budget control.

C. Select only “MainAccount” and “Department” as budget control dimensions.

D. Select only “Department” as a budget control dimension.

E. Select only “MainAccount,” “Department” and “CostCenter” as budgeting dimensions.

Answer: BCD

Question: 6

You are creating a budget register entry. You notice that a manual budget reservation will exceed the budget.

What should you do within the budget register entry to satisfy the over-budget condition?

A. enter recurrence

B. transfer balances

C. allocate across periods

D. allocate across dimensions

Answer: A

Question: 7

You are creating a new budget and realize that you need to allocate a certain percentage of the total budget amount across defined periods.

In order to do this on the budget register entry, you need to define the percentage that will be allocated in each period.

What should you set up in order to achieve this goal?

A. budget transfer

B. period allocation key

C. budget allocation term

D. budget cycle

Answer: D

Question: 8

You are an accountant.

You are creating your travel expense budget for the fiscal year and want to enter the same budget amount for each month.

On the budget register entry, which option should you choose?

A. transfer balances

B. allocate across dimensions

C. enter recurrence

D. allocate across periods

Answer: A

Question: 9

You are the director of finance.

You are starting to create budgets for the fiscal year and want to generate budget plans from source information.

Which three options can you choose from in Microsoft Dynamics AX Financials? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A. Generate budget plan from general ledger.

B. Generate budget plan from fixed assets

C. Generate budget plan from forecast positions

D. Generate budget plan from yearly sales

E. Generate budget plans from yearly purchases

Answer: BDE

Question: 1

You are a technical support specialist for your company.

The Company's sales staff are issued a company laptop to use when interfacing with Microsoft Dynamics 365. They need to integrate their smart phones with Microsoft Dynamics 365 as well. Many of their phones, however, do not have a supported web browser.

What should you suggest to meet this sales staffs need?

A. Advise them to run the Microsoft Dynamics 365 web app on their phones.

B. Advise them to use the web client to access Microsoft Dynamics 365 from their phones.

C. Advise them to download the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App from the Office 365 Admin portal.

D. Advise them to download the Microsoft Dynamics 365 App from their phone's store.

Answer: D

Question: 2

You are a sales manager for a large company that is about to implement Microsoft Dynamics 365.

A company called Fabrikam. Inc. has three divisions within the company that purchase services from your firm.

You have created an account record for each of the three divisions and for Fabrikam. Inc. and need to link the records.

How should you set up the records to properly link the record for Fabrikam, Inc. with its three divisions using Microsoft Dynamics 365 account management?

A. Fabrikam, Inc. is a Primary Contact

B. Fabrikam. Inc. is a Parent account.

C. Fabrikam. Inc. is a Parent Customer.

D. Fabrikam, Inc. is a Child account.

Answer: B

Question: 3

You have recently been hired as a sales assistant for a new employer.

The company sales staff uses Microsoft Dynamics 365, and you must occasionally input data for them.

You want to use the CRM Help Center for assistance to perform these tasks.

Which two help sources are available for you? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A. phone support

B. training links

C. online chat

D. community blogs

Answer: B,C

Question: 4

You are The technical support specialist for a company that utilizes Microsoft Dynamics 365.

A new user calls the help desk complaining that every time they try to create a record, they are being denied the ability to The user states that some type of error is displayed as well.

What would cause this error?

A. The user cannot create records using the Outlook client

B. The user failed to populate at (east one required field.

C. The user is using Dynamics 365 Business Edition father than Enterprise Edition.

D. The user cannot input more than 250 characters into a single line of text field.

Answer: A

Question: 5

You are a sales support specialist for a company that utilizes Microsoft Dynamics 365.

You are going through the many records of their current database and inputting this data into Microsoft Dynamics 365.

Which instance below would be created as an Opportunity record in Microsoft Dynamics 365?

A. a person who calls into the company after receiving a mass mailing advertisement from your company

B. a person who has prequalified for a mortgage and wants to utilize a real estate agent to look at property

C. a person who signs a contract to purchase three cases of your product on a quarterly basis for 2 years r

D. a list of people supplied by a marketing research firm that matches your target market

Answer: D

Question: 6

You are a sales professional for an insurance company.

You have been working with a potential customer who was identified in Microsoft Dynamics 365 as an Opportunity. That customer has just signed a coverage agreement.

How should you now modify the status of the designated Opportunity record?

A. close the opportunity as Lost

B. delete the opportunity record, and create a customer record

C. close the opportunity as Won

D. delete the opportunity record, and create a contact record

Answer: B

Question: 7

You are a new sales executive for a company that utilizes Microsoft Dynamics 365.

You have begun tracking your activities in Microsoft Dynamics 365. You have completed the activities for one of your customers.

How will the activity state of the designated tasks be modified to reflect the fulfillment of these

A. You must manually change the activity state to Canceled.

B. The activity state will update automatically when the associated opportunity is won.

C. The activity state will update automatically when the associated sale order is complete.

D. You must manually change the activity state to Completed.

Answer: A

Question: 8

You are a sales professional for a medium-sized firm.

You are entering information into Microsoft Dynamics you organized at a trade show.

What type of record should you create for each card?

A. Prospect

B. Lead

C. Account

D. Opportunity

Answer: D

Question: 9

You are working with an organization that uses Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Microsoft Office 365. The organization communicates with their customers primarily via email.

The organization is struggling with getting emails tracked in Dynamics 365 on the right records, and emails are often not tracked at all.

Which feature should you recommend implementing to get visibility of untracked emails inside Dynamics 365 for relevant

A. Relationship Insights with Email Engagement

B. Relationship Assistant

C. Server-Side Synchronization between Microsoft Dynamics 365 and Exchange

D. Relationship Insights with Auto Capture

Answer: D

Question: 10

You need to be able to export your data to Excel, edit in Excel, and then, once the edits are completed, update the records in Microsoft Dynamics 365 with your changes.

Which two options require Microsoft Dynamics 365 for Outlook to refresh the data in Microsoft Dynamics 365? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A. Export to Static Worksheet

B. Export to Excel Online

C. Export to Dynamic Pivot Table

D. Export to Dynamic Worksheet

Answer: A

Question: 1

Which SysV init configuration file should be modified to disable the ctrl-alt-delete key combination?

A. /etc/keys

B. /proc/keys

C. /etc/inittab

D. /proc/inittab

E. /etc/reboot

Answer: C

Question: 2

During a system boot cycle, what program is executed after the BIOS completes its tasks?

A. The bootloader

B. The inetd program

C. The init program

D. The kernel

Answer: A

Question: 3

Which run levels should never be declared as the default run level when using SysV init? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A. 0

B. 1

C. 3

D. 5

E. 6

Answer: A,E

Question: 4

Which of the following statements is correct when talking about /proc/?

A. All changes to files in /proc/ are stored in /etc/proc.d/ and restored on reboot.

B. All files within /proc/ are read-only and their contents cannot be changed.

C. All changes to files in /proc/ are immediately recognized by the kernel.

D. All files within /proc/ are only readable by the root user.

Answer: C

Question: 5

What of the following statements are true regarding /dev/ when using udev? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A. Entries for all possible devices get created on boot even if those devices are not connected.

B. Additional rules for udev can be created by adding them to /etc/udev/rules.d/.

C. When using udev, it is not possible to create block orcharacter devices in /dev/ using mknod.

D. The /dev/ directory is a filesystem of type tmpfs and is mounted by udev during system startup.

E. The content of /dev/ is stored in /etc/udev/dev and is restored during system startup.

Answer: B,D

Question: 6

Which of the following information is stored within the BIOS? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A. Boot device order

B. Linux kernel version

C. Timezone

D. Hardware configuration

E. The system's hostname

Answer: A,D

Question: 7

Which of the following commands reboots the system when using SysV init? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A. shutdown -r now

B. shutdown -r "rebooting"

C. telinit 6

D. telinit 0

E. shutdown -k now "rebooting"

Answer: A,C

Question: 8

Which of the following are init systems used within Linux systems? (Choose THREE correct answers.)

A. startd

B. systemd

C. Upstart

D. SysInit

E. SysV init

Answer: B,C,E

Question: 9

Correct Text

Which file in the /proc filesystem lists parameters passed from the bootloader to the kernel? (Specify the file name only without any path.)

Answer: cmdline, /proc/cmdline

Question: 10

What information can the lspci command display about the system hardware? (Choose THREE correct answers.)

A. Device IRQ settings

B. PCI bus speed

C. System battery type

D. Device vendor identification

E. Ethernet MAC address

Answer: A,B,D

Question: 11

Which of the following commands brings a system running SysV init into a state in which it is safe to perform maintenance tasks? (Choose TWO correct answers.)

A. shutdown -R 1 now

B. shutdown -single now

C. init 1

D. telinit 1

E. runlevel 1

Answer: C,D

Question: 12

What is the first program that is usually started, at boot time, by the Linux kernel when using SysV init?

A. /lib/init.so

B. /sbin/init

C. /etc/rc.d/rcinit

D. /proc/sys/kernel/init

E. /boot/init

Answer: B

Question: 13

Correct Text

Which command will display messages from the kernel that were output during the normal boot sequence?

Answer: dmesg, /bin/dmesg

Question: 14

Which of the following commands will write a message to the terminals of all logged in users?

A. bcast

B. mesg

C. print

D. wall

E. yell

Answer: D

Question: 15

Which of the following kernel parameters instructs the kernel to suppress most boot messages?

A. silent

B. verbose=0

C. nomesg

D. quiet

Answer: D

Case Study: 1

VanArsdel, Ltd

Overview

VanArsdel, Ltd. builds skyscrapers, subways, and bridges. VanArsdel is a leader in using technology to do construction better.

Overview

VanArsdel employees are able to use their own mobile devices for work activities because the company recognizes that this usage enables employee productivity. Employees also access Software as a Service (SaaS) applications, including DocuSign, Dropbox, and Citrix. The company continues to evaluate and adopt more SaaS applications for its business. VanArsdel uses Azure Active Directory (AD) to authenticate its employees, as well as Multi-Factor Authentication (MFA). Management enjoys the ease with which MFA can be enabled and disabled for employees who use cloud-based services. VanArsdel's on-premises directory contains a single forest.

Helpdesk:

VanArsdel creates a helpdesk group to assist its employees. The company sends email messages to all its employees about the helpdesk group and how to contact it. Configuring employee access for SaaS applications is often a time-consuming task. It is not always obvious to the helpdesk group which users should be given access to which SaaS applications. The helpdesk group must respond to many phone calls and email messages to solve this problem, which takes up valuable time. The helpdesk group is unable to meet the needs of VanArsdel's employees.

However, many employees do not work with the helpdesk group to solve their access problems. Instead, these employees contact their co-workers or managers to find someone who can help them. Also, new employees are not always told to contact the helpdesk group for access problems. Some employees report that they cannot see all the applications in the Access Panel that they have access to. Some employees report that they must re-enter their passwords when they access cloud applications, even though they have already authenticated.

Bring your own device (BYOD):

VanArsdel wants to continue to support users and their mobile and personal devices, but the company is concerned about how to protect corporate assets that are stored on these devices. The company does not have a strategy to ensure that its data is removed from the devices when employees leave the company.

Customer Support

VanArsdel wants a mobile app for customer profile registration and feedback. The company would like to keep track of all its previous, current, and future customers worldwide. A profile system using third-party authentication is required as well as feedback and support sections for the mobile app.

Migration:

VanArsdel plans to migrate several virtual machine (VM) workloads into Azure. They also plan to extend their on-premises Active Directory into Azure for mobile app authentication.

Business Requirements

Hybrid Solution:

A single account and credentials for both on-premises and cloud applications
Certain applications that are hosted both in Azure and on-site must be accessible to both VanArsdel employees and partners
The service level agreement (SLA) for the solution requires an uptime of 99.9%
The partners all use Hotmail.com email addresses

Mobile App:

VanArsdel requires a mobile app for project managers on construction job sites. The mobile app has the following requirements:

The app must display partner information.
The app must alert project managers when changes to the partner information occur.
The app must display project information including an image gallery to view pictures of construction projects.
Project managers must be able to access the information remotely and securely.

Security:

VanArsdel must control access to its resources to ensure sensitive services and information are accessible only by authorized users and/or managed devices.
Employees must be able to securely share data, based on corporate policies, with other VanArsdel employees and with partners who are located on construction job sites.
VanArsdel management does NOT want to create and manage user accounts for partners.

Technical Requirements

Architecture:

VanArsdel requires a non-centralized stateless architecture fonts data and services where application, data, and computing power are at the logical extremes of the network.
VanArsdel requires separation of CPU storage and SQL services

Data Storage:

VanArsdel needs a solution to reduce the number of operations on the contractor information table. Currently, data transfer rates are excessive, and queue length for read/write operations affects performance.

A mobile service that is used to access contractor information must have automatically scalable, structured storage
Images must be stored in an automatically scalable, unstructured form.

Mobile Apps:

VanArsdel mobile app must authenticate employees to the company's Active Directory.
Event-triggered alerts must be pushed to mobile apps by using a custom Node.js script.
The customer support app should use an identity provider that is configured by using the Access Control Service for current profile registration and authentication.
The customer support team will adopt future identity providers that are configured through Access Control Service.

Security:

Active Directory Federated Server (AD FS) will be used to extend AD into Azure.
Helpdesk administrators must have access to only the groups of Azure resources they are responsible for. Azure administration will be performed by a separate group.
IT administrative overhead must be minimized.
Permissions must be assigned by using Role Based Access Control (RBAC).
Line of business applications must be accessed securely.

Question: 1

You need to assign permissions for the Virtual Machine (VM) workloads that you migrate to Azure.

The solution must use the principal of least privileges.

What should you do?

A. Create all VMs in the cloud service named Groupl and then connect to the Azure subscription. Run the following Windows PowerShell command:New-AzureRoleAssignment -Mail user1@vanarsdelltd.com -RoleDefinitionName Contributor -ResourceGroupName group1

B. In the Azure portal, select an individual virtual machine and add an owner.

C. In the Azure portal, assign read permission to the user at the subscription level.

D. Create each VM in a separate cloud service and then connect to the Azure subscription. Run the following Windows PowerShell command:Get-AzureVM | New-AzureRoleAssignment -Mail user1@vanarsdelltd.com -RoleDefinitionName Contributor

Answer: A

Explanation:

* Scenario: Permissions must be assigned by using Role Based Access Control (RBAC).

* Role-Based access control (RBAC) in the Azure Portal and Azure Resource Management API allows you to manage access to your subscription at a fine-grained level. With this feature, you can grant access for Active Directory users, groups, or service principals by assigning some roles to them at a particular scope.

Create a role assignment

Use New-AzureRoleAssignment to create a role assignment.

Example: This will create a role assignment for a group at a resource group level.

PS C:\> New-AzureRoleAssignment -ObjectID <group object ID> -RoleDefinitionName Reader -ResourceGroupName group1

References: https://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/documentation/articles/role-based-access-control-powershell/

Question: 2

DRAG DROP

You need to recommend data storage mechanisms for the solution.

What should you recommend? To answer, drag the appropriate data storage mechanism to the correct information type. Each data storage mechanism may be used once, more than once, or not at all. You may need to drag the split bar between panes or scroll to view content.

Answer:

Explanation:

* Use Table storage for Contractor information

* Use Blob for Project Images

* Scenario: VanArsdel needs a solution to reduce the number of operations on the contractor information table. Currently, data transfer rates are excessive, and queue length for read/write operations affects performance.

/ A mobile service that is used to access contractor information must have automatically scalable, structured storage

/ Images must be stored in an automatically scalable, unstructured form.

Note: Blob is an acronym for Binary Large object. Basically Blob is a sequence of bytes – just what an application needs. Blob can hold audio, video, email messages, archived files, zip files or a word processing document in a very general way.

References: http://www.thewindowsclub.com/understanding-blobqueuetable-storage-windows-azure

Question: 3

You need to design the system that alerts project managers to data changes in the contractor information app.

Which service should you use?

A. Azure Mobile Service

B. Azure Service Bus Message Queueing

C. Azure Queue Messaging

D. Azure Notification Hub

Answer: C

Explanation:

* Scenario:

/ Mobile Apps: Event-triggered alerts must be pushed to mobile apps by using a custom Node.js script.

/ The service level agreement (SLA) for the solution requires an uptime of 99.9%

* If you are already using Azure Storage Blobs or Tables and you start using queues, you are guaranteed 99.9% availability. If you use Blobs or Tables with Service Bus queues, you will have lower availability.

Note: Microsoft Azure supports two types of queue mechanisms: Azure Queues and Service Bus Queues.

/ Azure Queues, which are part of the Azure storage infrastructure, feature a simple REST-based Get/Put/Peek interface, providing reliable, persistent messaging within and between services.

/ Service Bus queues are part of a broader Azure messaging infrastructure that supports queuing as well as publish/subscribe, Web service remoting, and integration patterns.

References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/azure/hh767287.aspx

Question: 4

You need to recommend a solution that allows partners to authenticate.

Which solution should you recommend?

A. Configure the federation provider to trust social identity providers.

B. Configure the federation provider to use the Azure Access Control service.

C. Create a new directory in Azure Active Directory and create a user account for the partner.

D. Create an account on the VanArsdel domain for the partner and send an email message that contains the password to the partner.

Answer: B

Explanation:

* Scenario: The partners all use Hotmail.com email addresses.

* In Microsoft Azure Active Directory Access Control (also known as Access Control Service or ACS), an identity provider is a service that authenticates user or client identities and issues security tokens that ACS consumes.

The ACS Management Portal provides built-in support for configuring Windows Live ID as an ACS Identity Provider.

Incorrect:

Not C, not D: Scenario: VanArsdel management does NOT want to create and manage user accounts for partners.

References:

Question: 5

HOTSPOT

You need to design the contractor information app.

What should you recommend? To answer, select the appropriate options in the answer area.

Answer:

Explanation:

/ They also plan to extend their on-premises Active Directory into Azure for mobile app authentication

/ VanArsdel mobile app must authenticate employees to the company's Active Directory.

References: http://azure.microsoft.com/en-gb/documentation/articles/mobile-services-ios-get-started-offline-data/

Question: 6

You are designing a plan to deploy a new application to Azure.

The solution must provide a single sign-on experience for users.

You need to recommend an authentication type.

Which authentication type should you recommend?

A. SAML credential tokens

B. Azure managed access keys

C. Windows Authentication

D. MS-CHAP

Answer: A

Explanation:

A Microsoft cloud service administrator who wants to provide their Azure Active Directory (AD) users with sign-on validation can use a SAML 2.0 compliant SP-Lite profile based Identity Provider as their preferred Security Token Service (STS) / identity provider. This is useful where the solution implementer already has a user directory and password store on-premises that can be accessed using SAML 2.0. This existing user directory can be used for sign-on to Office 365 and other Azure AD-secured resources.

References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/azure/dn641269.aspx?f=255&MSPPError=-2147217396

Question: 7

You need to prepare the implementation of data storage for the contractor information app.

What should you?

A. Create a storage account and implement multiple data partitions.

B. Create a Cloud Service and a Mobile Service. Implement Entity Group transactions.

C. Create a Cloud Service and a Deployment group. Implement Entity Group transactions.

D. Create a Deployment group and a Mobile Service. Implement multiple data partitions.

Answer: B

Explanation:

* Scenario:

/ VanArsdel needs a solution to reduce the number of operations on the contractor information table. Currently, data transfer rates are excessive, and queue length for read/write operations affects performance.

/ A mobile service that is used to access contractor information must have automatically scalable, structured storage

* The basic unit of deployment and scale in Azure is the Cloud Service.

References: https://msdn.microsoft.com/en-us/library/azure/dd894038.aspx

Question: 8

You need to ensure that users do not need to re-enter their passwords after they authenticate to cloud applications for the first time.

What should you do?

A. Enable Microsoft Account authentication.

B. Set up a virtual private network (VPN) connection between the VanArsdel premises and the Azure datacenter. Set up a Windows Active Directory domain controller in Azure VM. Implement Integrated Windows authentication.

C. Deploy ExpressRoute.

D. Configure Azure Active Directory Sync to use single sign-on (SSO).

Answer: D

Explanation:

Single sign-on (SSO) is a property of access control of multiple related, but independent software systems. With this property a user logs in once and gains access to all systems without being prompted to log in again at each of them.

References: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Single_sign-on

Question: 1

You are the system administrator at your organization.

You need to quickly synchronize all customizations from your synchronizing the data.

What should you perform to accomplish this goal?

A. a clone

B. a switch

C. a full copy

D. a minimal copy

Answer: D

Question: 2

You are a system administrator at Contoso. Inc.

You need to ensure that only system administrators and system customizers

What is likely the cause of this issue?

A. Your instance is being upgraded.

B. Your storage limit was reached.

C. Your instance is in Administration mode.

D. Your instance has been reset

Answer: A

Question: 3

You are a system administrator using Microsoft Dynamics 365.

You received an email informing you that you need to schedule the December 2016 update: however, you skipped the June 2016 update.

Which of the following is true?

A. You can schedule the December 2016 update without scheduling the June 2016 update.

B. You can skip both updates and schedule all to be completed when the June 2017 update is available.

C. You must schedule the June 2016 update before you can schedule the December 2016 update.

D. You can schedule both updates to be completed at the same time.

Answer: B

Question: 4

You are the system administrator for an organization that has a Microsoft Dynamics 365 deployment hosted in country/region 1.

Your organization just acquired a new company in country/region 2.

You need to ensure that the instance created for the users of the acquired company does not share storage space with all of your current instances.

What should you create to accomplish this goal?

A. a new production instance in country/region 1 on your existing tenant

B. a new production instance in a new tenant in country/region 2

C. a new sandbox instance in country/region 2 on your existing tenant

D. a new production instance in country/region 2 on your existing tenant

Answer: D

Question: 5

You are the system administrator at Contoso, Inc.

You have imported 3 GB of data into an instance, but the storage utilization for your subscription does not reflect the used storage space.

What is causing this discrepancy?

A. You imported the data into a sandbox instance.

B. Custom indexing is enabled on your instance.

C. You imported the data into a preview instance.

D. Data utilization is calculated every 48 hours.

Answer: A

Question: 6

You are a system administrator using Microsoft Dynamics 365.

You have two production instances and four sandbox instances. A new update is coming out What is true about the updates?

A. Updates for the production and the sandbox instances are each managed separately.

B. Updates for the sandbox instances are managed separately. The production instances are managed together.

C. Updates for the production and the sandbox instances are all managed together.

D. Updates for the sandbox instances are managed together.

E. The production instances are managed separately.

Answer: BC

Question: 7

You are a system administrator using Microsoft Dynamics 365.

You receive notification that an update needs to be scheduled and approved.

Where should you perform this task?

A. In Microsoft Dynamics 365, select Settings and System Notifications.

B. In the Microsoft Office 365 Admin Center, open the Microsoft Dynamics 365 Admin Center.

C. In Microsoft Dynamics 365. select Settings and Administration.

D. In the Microsoft Office 365 Admin Center, select Billing and Subscriptions.

Answer: A

Question: 8

You are the system administrator at your organization.

You need to synchronize all customization and users from your production instance to your training instance.

What should you perform to accomplish this goal?

A. a full copy

B. a clone

C. a switch

D. a minimal copy

Answer: A

Question: 9

You are a system administrator.

You are working with a Microsoft Dynamics 365 update process to include new features from a major release in your organization.

How often do new features become available through customer-driven updates in the Microsoft Dynamics 365 instance?

A. monthly

B. quarterly

C. twice per year

D. annually

Answer: C

References:

https://technet.microsoft.com/en-us/library/dn308237.aspx

Question: 1

You create a personal view.

You need to ensure that both you and a coworker can use the view.

What are two possible ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A. Email the F etch xml file.

B. Share the view.

C. Email a link from the Advanced Find ribbon.

D. Assign the view.

Answer: BD

Question: 2

You have B Dynamics CRM organization that uses Microsoft Social Engagement

You need to analyze the sales pipeline and the Social sentiment to watch for social trends that affect sales.

What should you do?

A. Configure a link to CRM in Microsoft Social Engagement, and then build an interactive dashboard.

B. Build a dashboard that has a chart for the pipeline and a widget from Microsoft Social Engagement.

C. Build a multi-stream dashboard that has a global filter.

D. Configure a link to CRM in Microsoft Social Engagement, and then build a personal view.

Answer: A

Question: 3

You have a Dynamic CRM organization that has more than 700 active goals.

At the end of each year, your company reevaluates each goal.

You need to identify which value of the goals must be configured manually.

Which value should you identity?

A. Actual

B. target

C. Rollup Query - Actual

D. In-Progress

E. Rollup Query - In Process

Answer: B

Question: 4

You need to create a goal that will show the previous seven days of activity.

Which two actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. close the goal after seven days.

B. Add a filter

C. Set the Goal period as a Custom Period.

D. Add a rollup field.

E. Add a rollup query.

Answer: AC

Question: 5

You work for a company named » Fabrikam, Inc.

Fabrikam is acquired by a company named Contoso, Ltd. Both companies have different fiscal year ends.

The sales team at Fabrikam will be required to use a new fiscal year end at the end of the current quarter.

The Dynamics CRM administrator at Fabrikam updates the Fiscal Year Settings immediately.

You need to ensure that reports on if>.- goals use the Fabrikam year and until the end of the quartet

What should you do?

A. Run the Align with Fiscal Period action immediately.

B. Recalculate the goals.

C. Run the Align w.th Fiscal Period action after the quarter ends.

D. Create new goals for the old fiscal period.

Answer: A

Question: 6

You have Dynamics CRM organization that has 50,000 contacts in regions around the world.

Your job is to review the records of the contacts from three regions. The contacts in the three regions are managed by different account managers. You work with only one of the regions per day, updating the address information of the contacts in that region.

You need to view only the contacts from a specific region.

What should you do?

A. Follow the contact records.

B. Add access teams.

C. Create a dashboard.

D. Create personal views.

Answer: D

Question: 7

You plan to export sales data that will be used in the annual report of your company. You need to provide a copy of some of the sales data to the company stakeholders. Which format can you use to export the data?

A. Adobe PDF

B. Microsoft Word

C. Microsoft PowerPoint

D. Microsoft Visio

Answer: A

Question: 8

You are reviewing the sales pipeline of your Dynamics CRM organization. You need to identify which type of data is contained in the sales pipeline. What should you identify?

A. the combined estimated revenue of all active quotes

B . the combined estimated revenue of all open leads

C. the combined estimated revenue of all open opportunities

D. the combined estimated revenue of all open orders

Answer: C

Question: 9

You have 20 sales representatives who each has a monthly goal that measures the number of phone calls made to their 10 key customers. The managers of the sale representatives want you to add parent goals that track this activity over the next three weeks for an internal competition.

You need to use a parent goal to track the team score, and child goals to track the individual secures.

Which two of configurations should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. new child goals that all use the same rollup queries.

B. Change the parent goal of each child goal.

C. Create a parent goal that has a custom period of three weeks from today

D. Change the manager of each child goal

E. Change the goal manager of each child goat.

Answer: CD

Question: 1

You are the primary technical resource for an enterprise deployment of Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 on-premises that has 300 seats.

You are asked about hardware requirements for Microsoft SQL Server.

You need to make the appropriate recommendation.

What are the hardware requirements for SQL Server for this organization?

A. Dual-core x64 architecture 1.5 GHz processor, 4 GB RAM. and SAS RAID 0 hard disk array

B. Dual-core x64 architecture 1.5 GHz processor, 4 GB RAM. and SAS RAID 5 hard disk array

C. Intel Xeon Phi Coprocessors, 64-GB RAM, and PCI Express Solid State Storage

D. Quad-core x64 architecture 2 GHz AMD Opteron processor. 16-GB RAM, and SAS RAID 5 hard disk array

Answer: A

Question: 2

Your organization uses Microsoft Exchange Online and you deploy Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 on-premises. You need to synchronize records between the Microsoft Dynamics CRM Server and Exchange Online. What is the supported synchronization method for this scenario?

A. folder-level tracking

B. Email Router

C. smart matching

D. server-side synchronization

Answer: C

Question: 3

Which service can you categorize as a Back End Server role?

A. Email Integration Service

B. Help Server

C. Volume Shadow Copy Service (VSS) Writer service

D. Deployment Web Service

Answer: D

Question: 4

You are the primary technical resource for a Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 on-premises installation. While completing the discovery phase, you find that the domain is running directory service forest and domain functional level of Windows Server 2003.

When you report your findings, you are informed that the organization is running legacy applications and could not upgrade functional levels when they began upgrading their servers several years ago. They understand that the software vendor has made updates and will investigate if new domain service functional levels are supported.

You need to inform them of the minimally supported Active Directory Domain Services (AD DS) functional level for Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 on-premises.

What is the minimally supported AD DS functional level?

A. Windows Server 2003 R2

B. Windows Server 2008

C. Windows Server 2008 R2

D. Windows Server 2012

Answer: A

Question: 5

Which two operating systems are supported for Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016? Each correct answer presents a complete solution. NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Windows Server 2012 R2 Datacenter Edition

B. Windows Server 2012 R2 Essentials Edition

C. Windows Server 2012 Foundation Edition

D. Windows Server 2012 Standard Edition

Answer: AD

Question: 6

You review the browsers available on client machines for a Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 installation.

There are:

• 47 Windows 7 devices with Internet Explorer 9.

• 17 Apple devices with the latest version of Safari.

• 5 Google Chromebooks with the latest version of Chrome.

• 105 Windows 7 systems with the latest version of Mozilla Firefox.

You need to determine the number of browsers that will need an upgrade to support the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 web client

How many web browsers will need an upgrade?

A. 5

B. 17

C. 47

D. 105

Answer: C

Question: 7

You are performing a full server Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 setup on a server named CRM01. You will use a Microsoft SQL Server 2012 Enterprise. 64-bit SP1 named SQL01 for the setup.

If not already installed, which three components will be installed during the setup? Each correct answer presents part of the solution.

A. SQL Server Reporting Services in SQL01

B. Internet Information Services (IIS) in CRM01

C. Windows PowerShell in CRM01

D. CRMAppPool Internet Information Services (IIS) application pool in CRM01

E. SQLAccessGroup in Active Directory

Answer: CDE

Question: 8

You manage a Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 on-premises installation.

You need to determine what is gained by installing Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions.

What are three benefits of installing the Microsoft Dynamics CRM Reporting Extensions? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

NOTE: Each correct selection is worth one point.

A. Reports authored in Transact-SQL are translated to Fetch XML

B. Removes the need to configure trust for delegation

C. Enables the use of SharePoint mode in SQL Reporting Services

D. Support for fetch-based reports

E. Allows you to create or import an organization

Answer: ADE

Question: 9

You are installing the Microsoft Dynamics CRM 2016 Email Router.

Which two operating systems are supported? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A. Windows Vista 64-bit

B. Windows 7 32-bit

C. Windows Server 2008 R2 64-bit

D. Windows Server 2012 64-bit

Answer: BC

Question: 1

Your organization plans to use Voice of the Customer to send surveys to select groups of customers. You need to customize branding colors and logos for the surveys. What should you do?

A. Modify Voice of the Customer survey themes.

B. Configure system settings.

C. Modify Microsoft Dynamics 365 themes.

D. Update Voice of the Customer piped data.

Answer: A

Question: 2

Which three actions can you perform by using editable grids? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A. Update a lookup fie4d to a custom entity.

B. Edit records by using mobile clients.

C. Group records by a specific column.

D. Update a Customer Type lookup field.

E. Update the value of an Owner lookup field.

Answer: A,B,C

Question: 3

You plan to create surveys for a multinational company that manages hotels. You must create a unique survey for each hotel location. Which statement is true?

A. You can capture up to 10,000 survey responses per day.

B. You can store unlimited survey responses over time.

C. You can publish a maximum of 200 surveys.

D. All surveys must use the same theme.

Answer: C

Question: 4

You are creating a new survey with the Voice of the Customer Survey designer.

Which two statements regarding the Voice of the Customer Survey designer are true? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A. The Complete page must always display last.

B. The Welcome page must always display first.

C. Surveys can have up to three pages.

D. Surveys can contain unlimited questions.

Answer: A,B

Question: 5

You need to implement Microsoft Power BI to analyze and visualize data.

Which two actions can you perform? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A. Use iframes to display content

B. Implement custom visualizations.

C. Use a file that is stored in Microsoft OneDrive as a data source.

D. Display the most recent version of the data always.

Answer: A,B

Question: 6

You enable feedback for a Voice of the Customer survey. What is the total number of questions allowed for the survey?

A. 30

B. 40

C. 100

D. 250

Answer: B

Question: 7

You need to provide quick ad-hoc analysis of data from within the Microsoft Dynamics 365 environment Which Export to Excel option should you use?

A. Excel Online

B. static worksheet

C. dynamic worksheet

D. dynamic pivot table

Answer: A

Question: 8

You have access to the desktop version of Microsoft Excel and Excel Online.

You need to perform a bulk update of data for 225 contacts.

What are two ways to achieve the goal? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A. Open the data in Excel Online, make updates, and then save changes to Microsoft Dynamics 365.

B. Export data as a dynamic pivot table, make updates, and then save changes to Microsoft Dynamics 365.

C. Export the data as a static worksheet make updates, and then save changes to Microsoft Dynamics 365.

D. Export the data as a static worksheet, make updates, and then import the data back into Microsoft Dynamics 365.

Answer: A,D

Question: 9

You implement the Unified Service Desk (USD). You plan to implement actions and replacement parameters. Which three symbols are valid replacement keys? Each correct answer presents a complete solution.

A. ^

B. -

C. +

D. $

E. ~

Answer: A,C,D

Question: 10

You plan to deploy Unified Service Desk (USD).

You need to install all USD components and verify the installation.

Which three actions should you perform? Each correct answer presents part of the solutioi

A. Deploy USD packages to the Microsoft Dynamics 365 instance.

B. Install the USD client on a development computer.

C. Run the USD client and connect to the Microsoft Dynamics 365.

D. In the USD application, configure client diagnostic logging.

E. Install computer telephony integration (CTI) adapters.

Answer: A,B,C

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